Limit comparison test; is this proof correct, and can it be improved?
Suppose that $forall n: 0< a_n, b_n$ and that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac {a_n}{b_n}=c$ with $c not = 0$. Then
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}a_n$ converges $iff$ $sum_{n=0}^{infty}b_n$ converges
Suppose first that $displaystyle sum_{n=0}^{infty} b_n$ converges.
There exists an $N$ such that $forall (n ge N): left|dfrac {a_n}{b_n} -c right|<1$, so $forall (n ge N): |a_n-cb_n|<b_n$.
Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$. Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get
$displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$. This shows that $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k$ converges, so $displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty}a_k$ converges.
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
add a comment |
Suppose that $forall n: 0< a_n, b_n$ and that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac {a_n}{b_n}=c$ with $c not = 0$. Then
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}a_n$ converges $iff$ $sum_{n=0}^{infty}b_n$ converges
Suppose first that $displaystyle sum_{n=0}^{infty} b_n$ converges.
There exists an $N$ such that $forall (n ge N): left|dfrac {a_n}{b_n} -c right|<1$, so $forall (n ge N): |a_n-cb_n|<b_n$.
Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$. Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get
$displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$. This shows that $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k$ converges, so $displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty}a_k$ converges.
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
It seems your proof assumes that $lvert a_k - cb_k rvert + lvert cb_k rvert = lvert a_k rvert$, which I don't believe is necessarily always true.
– John Omielan
Dec 28 '18 at 18:33
1
$a_k leq (c+1)b_k$ for $kgeq N$, and now use summation. Everything is positive so there shouldn't be an issue
– Jakobian
Dec 28 '18 at 18:34
add a comment |
Suppose that $forall n: 0< a_n, b_n$ and that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac {a_n}{b_n}=c$ with $c not = 0$. Then
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}a_n$ converges $iff$ $sum_{n=0}^{infty}b_n$ converges
Suppose first that $displaystyle sum_{n=0}^{infty} b_n$ converges.
There exists an $N$ such that $forall (n ge N): left|dfrac {a_n}{b_n} -c right|<1$, so $forall (n ge N): |a_n-cb_n|<b_n$.
Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$. Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get
$displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$. This shows that $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k$ converges, so $displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty}a_k$ converges.
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
Suppose that $forall n: 0< a_n, b_n$ and that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac {a_n}{b_n}=c$ with $c not = 0$. Then
$sum_{n=0}^{infty}a_n$ converges $iff$ $sum_{n=0}^{infty}b_n$ converges
Suppose first that $displaystyle sum_{n=0}^{infty} b_n$ converges.
There exists an $N$ such that $forall (n ge N): left|dfrac {a_n}{b_n} -c right|<1$, so $forall (n ge N): |a_n-cb_n|<b_n$.
Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$. Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get
$displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$. This shows that $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k$ converges, so $displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty}a_k$ converges.
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series
real-analysis sequences-and-series
asked Dec 28 '18 at 18:24
OviOvi
12.4k1038111
12.4k1038111
It seems your proof assumes that $lvert a_k - cb_k rvert + lvert cb_k rvert = lvert a_k rvert$, which I don't believe is necessarily always true.
– John Omielan
Dec 28 '18 at 18:33
1
$a_k leq (c+1)b_k$ for $kgeq N$, and now use summation. Everything is positive so there shouldn't be an issue
– Jakobian
Dec 28 '18 at 18:34
add a comment |
It seems your proof assumes that $lvert a_k - cb_k rvert + lvert cb_k rvert = lvert a_k rvert$, which I don't believe is necessarily always true.
– John Omielan
Dec 28 '18 at 18:33
1
$a_k leq (c+1)b_k$ for $kgeq N$, and now use summation. Everything is positive so there shouldn't be an issue
– Jakobian
Dec 28 '18 at 18:34
It seems your proof assumes that $lvert a_k - cb_k rvert + lvert cb_k rvert = lvert a_k rvert$, which I don't believe is necessarily always true.
– John Omielan
Dec 28 '18 at 18:33
It seems your proof assumes that $lvert a_k - cb_k rvert + lvert cb_k rvert = lvert a_k rvert$, which I don't believe is necessarily always true.
– John Omielan
Dec 28 '18 at 18:33
1
1
$a_k leq (c+1)b_k$ for $kgeq N$, and now use summation. Everything is positive so there shouldn't be an issue
– Jakobian
Dec 28 '18 at 18:34
$a_k leq (c+1)b_k$ for $kgeq N$, and now use summation. Everything is positive so there shouldn't be an issue
– Jakobian
Dec 28 '18 at 18:34
add a comment |
3 Answers
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... Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$.
I would use "$le$" instead of "$<$" here.
Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$.
How? I assume that you use the triangle inequality
$$
a_k=(a_k-cb_k)+cb_kleq |a_k-cb_k|+cb_kleq b_k+cb_k.
$$
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
You don't need to "do the same proof". You only need to apply what you have shown to
$$
tilde{a}_n=b_n,quad tilde{b}_n=a_n,quad tilde{c}=frac1c.
$$
add a comment |
In your proof, you took $epsilon=1$.
If we take $epsilon=frac c2$,
For large $n$,
$$-frac c2<frac{a_n}{b_n}-c<frac c2$$
thus
$$frac c2b_n<a_n<frac{3c}{2}b_n$$
and comparison test.
(+1) This is the typical way forward
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 19:12
@MarkViola Thanks and Happy New Year.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 28 '18 at 19:13
You're welcome. My pleasure. And Happy Holidays to you also.
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 23:38
add a comment |
I think you should take what you have and write it "backwards" for the sake of clarity.
Assume that $sum b_n$ converges. Do your limit definition thing. Now note that:
$$
sum a_k = sum|a_k-cb_k+cb_k|leq sum|a_k-cb_k|+sum|cb_k|leq sum b_k+sum cb_k=(1+c)sum b_k
$$
Thus, by direct comparison, $sum a_k$ converges.
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
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... Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$.
I would use "$le$" instead of "$<$" here.
Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$.
How? I assume that you use the triangle inequality
$$
a_k=(a_k-cb_k)+cb_kleq |a_k-cb_k|+cb_kleq b_k+cb_k.
$$
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
You don't need to "do the same proof". You only need to apply what you have shown to
$$
tilde{a}_n=b_n,quad tilde{b}_n=a_n,quad tilde{c}=frac1c.
$$
add a comment |
... Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$.
I would use "$le$" instead of "$<$" here.
Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$.
How? I assume that you use the triangle inequality
$$
a_k=(a_k-cb_k)+cb_kleq |a_k-cb_k|+cb_kleq b_k+cb_k.
$$
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
You don't need to "do the same proof". You only need to apply what you have shown to
$$
tilde{a}_n=b_n,quad tilde{b}_n=a_n,quad tilde{c}=frac1c.
$$
add a comment |
... Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$.
I would use "$le$" instead of "$<$" here.
Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$.
How? I assume that you use the triangle inequality
$$
a_k=(a_k-cb_k)+cb_kleq |a_k-cb_k|+cb_kleq b_k+cb_k.
$$
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
You don't need to "do the same proof". You only need to apply what you have shown to
$$
tilde{a}_n=b_n,quad tilde{b}_n=a_n,quad tilde{c}=frac1c.
$$
... Therefore $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|a_k-cb_k|< sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k$.
I would use "$le$" instead of "$<$" here.
Adding $displaystyle sum_{k=N}^{infty}|cb_k|$ to both sides we get $displaystylesum_{k=N}^{infty}a_k < sum_{k=N}^{infty}b_k+sum_{k=N}^{infty}cb_k$.
How? I assume that you use the triangle inequality
$$
a_k=(a_k-cb_k)+cb_kleq |a_k-cb_k|+cb_kleq b_k+cb_k.
$$
Now for the other direction of the implcation; we can simply use that $lim_{n to infty} dfrac{b_n}{a_n}= dfrac 1c$ (which is OK since $c not = 0$) and do the same proof.
You don't need to "do the same proof". You only need to apply what you have shown to
$$
tilde{a}_n=b_n,quad tilde{b}_n=a_n,quad tilde{c}=frac1c.
$$
edited Dec 28 '18 at 19:07
answered Dec 28 '18 at 18:51
user587192user587192
1,747215
1,747215
add a comment |
add a comment |
In your proof, you took $epsilon=1$.
If we take $epsilon=frac c2$,
For large $n$,
$$-frac c2<frac{a_n}{b_n}-c<frac c2$$
thus
$$frac c2b_n<a_n<frac{3c}{2}b_n$$
and comparison test.
(+1) This is the typical way forward
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 19:12
@MarkViola Thanks and Happy New Year.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 28 '18 at 19:13
You're welcome. My pleasure. And Happy Holidays to you also.
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 23:38
add a comment |
In your proof, you took $epsilon=1$.
If we take $epsilon=frac c2$,
For large $n$,
$$-frac c2<frac{a_n}{b_n}-c<frac c2$$
thus
$$frac c2b_n<a_n<frac{3c}{2}b_n$$
and comparison test.
(+1) This is the typical way forward
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 19:12
@MarkViola Thanks and Happy New Year.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 28 '18 at 19:13
You're welcome. My pleasure. And Happy Holidays to you also.
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 23:38
add a comment |
In your proof, you took $epsilon=1$.
If we take $epsilon=frac c2$,
For large $n$,
$$-frac c2<frac{a_n}{b_n}-c<frac c2$$
thus
$$frac c2b_n<a_n<frac{3c}{2}b_n$$
and comparison test.
In your proof, you took $epsilon=1$.
If we take $epsilon=frac c2$,
For large $n$,
$$-frac c2<frac{a_n}{b_n}-c<frac c2$$
thus
$$frac c2b_n<a_n<frac{3c}{2}b_n$$
and comparison test.
answered Dec 28 '18 at 19:07
hamam_Abdallahhamam_Abdallah
38k21634
38k21634
(+1) This is the typical way forward
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 19:12
@MarkViola Thanks and Happy New Year.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 28 '18 at 19:13
You're welcome. My pleasure. And Happy Holidays to you also.
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 23:38
add a comment |
(+1) This is the typical way forward
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 19:12
@MarkViola Thanks and Happy New Year.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 28 '18 at 19:13
You're welcome. My pleasure. And Happy Holidays to you also.
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 23:38
(+1) This is the typical way forward
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 19:12
(+1) This is the typical way forward
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 19:12
@MarkViola Thanks and Happy New Year.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 28 '18 at 19:13
@MarkViola Thanks and Happy New Year.
– hamam_Abdallah
Dec 28 '18 at 19:13
You're welcome. My pleasure. And Happy Holidays to you also.
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 23:38
You're welcome. My pleasure. And Happy Holidays to you also.
– Mark Viola
Dec 28 '18 at 23:38
add a comment |
I think you should take what you have and write it "backwards" for the sake of clarity.
Assume that $sum b_n$ converges. Do your limit definition thing. Now note that:
$$
sum a_k = sum|a_k-cb_k+cb_k|leq sum|a_k-cb_k|+sum|cb_k|leq sum b_k+sum cb_k=(1+c)sum b_k
$$
Thus, by direct comparison, $sum a_k$ converges.
add a comment |
I think you should take what you have and write it "backwards" for the sake of clarity.
Assume that $sum b_n$ converges. Do your limit definition thing. Now note that:
$$
sum a_k = sum|a_k-cb_k+cb_k|leq sum|a_k-cb_k|+sum|cb_k|leq sum b_k+sum cb_k=(1+c)sum b_k
$$
Thus, by direct comparison, $sum a_k$ converges.
add a comment |
I think you should take what you have and write it "backwards" for the sake of clarity.
Assume that $sum b_n$ converges. Do your limit definition thing. Now note that:
$$
sum a_k = sum|a_k-cb_k+cb_k|leq sum|a_k-cb_k|+sum|cb_k|leq sum b_k+sum cb_k=(1+c)sum b_k
$$
Thus, by direct comparison, $sum a_k$ converges.
I think you should take what you have and write it "backwards" for the sake of clarity.
Assume that $sum b_n$ converges. Do your limit definition thing. Now note that:
$$
sum a_k = sum|a_k-cb_k+cb_k|leq sum|a_k-cb_k|+sum|cb_k|leq sum b_k+sum cb_k=(1+c)sum b_k
$$
Thus, by direct comparison, $sum a_k$ converges.
answered Dec 28 '18 at 18:36
DudeManDudeMan
1113
1113
add a comment |
add a comment |
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It seems your proof assumes that $lvert a_k - cb_k rvert + lvert cb_k rvert = lvert a_k rvert$, which I don't believe is necessarily always true.
– John Omielan
Dec 28 '18 at 18:33
1
$a_k leq (c+1)b_k$ for $kgeq N$, and now use summation. Everything is positive so there shouldn't be an issue
– Jakobian
Dec 28 '18 at 18:34