Prove/Disprove that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$ for every $a, b in f(G)$...












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  • Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.

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I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:



Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.



My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.










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Jan 17 at 19:57


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.























    0












    $begingroup$



    This question already has an answer here:




    • Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.

      1 answer




    I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:



    Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.



    My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.










    share|cite|improve this question











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    Jan 17 at 19:57


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.





















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      0





      $begingroup$



      This question already has an answer here:




      • Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.

        1 answer




      I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:



      Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.



      My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.

        1 answer




      I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:



      Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.



      My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.

        1 answer








      abstract-algebra group-theory






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      edited Jan 17 at 19:55







      qwipo

















      asked Jan 17 at 19:53









      qwipoqwipo

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      marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde abstract-algebra
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      Jan 17 at 19:57


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









      marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde abstract-algebra
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      Jan 17 at 19:57


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
























          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.



          If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.



          So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

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            1












            $begingroup$

            Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.



            If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.



            So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.



              If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.



              So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.



                If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.



                So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.



                If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.



                So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 17 at 20:04









                ecrinecrin

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                3477















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