Prove/Disprove that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$ for every $a, b in f(G)$...
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This question already has an answer here:
Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.
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I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:
Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.
My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.
abstract-algebra group-theory
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marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde
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Jan 17 at 19:57
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This question already has an answer here:
Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.
1 answer
I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:
Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.
My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.
abstract-algebra group-theory
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marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde
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Jan 17 at 19:57
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
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$begingroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.
1 answer
I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:
Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.
My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.
abstract-algebra group-theory
$endgroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.
1 answer
I encountered this statement of which I don't know if it is true or not:
Let $G, H$ be finite groups and let $phi$ be a homomorphism from G to H. For every $a, b in phi(G)$ it holds true that $left|phi^{-1}({a})right| = left|phi^{-1}({b})right|$.
My question is if this is a valid statement. Furthermore how can one prove/disprove it.
This question already has an answer here:
Number of preimages of a group element under a homomorphism.
1 answer
abstract-algebra group-theory
abstract-algebra group-theory
edited Jan 17 at 19:55
qwipo
asked Jan 17 at 19:53
qwipoqwipo
265
265
marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde
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Jan 17 at 19:57
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Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.
If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.
So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$
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$begingroup$
Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.
If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.
So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.
If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.
So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.
If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.
So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$
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Yes it's true, and i think the hypotesy of finite groups is unnecessary.
If $phicolon Gto H$ is an homomorphism then $G/ker phicongphi(G)$, that means that $phi^{-1}(g)=gkerphi$.
So $|phi^{-1}(g)|=|kerphi|=|phi^{-1}(0)|:forall gin G$
answered Jan 17 at 20:04
ecrinecrin
3477
3477
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