double quotient ring isomorphic to polynomials ring












0












$begingroup$


This question is quite specific, so apologies in advance. I don't have a clue of how to approach this. Answers and links to more general versions of this will also be very welcomed.



Let $F$ be a field and $A = F[x,y,z]$. $J=langle xy-z^2 rangle$ is an ideal in $A$. Denote $R=A/J$, and let $I=langle x+J, y+J rangle =langle x+J rangle + langle y+J rangle $ be an ideal in $R$.



I need to prove that $R/I cong F[w]$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is $w$ supposed to be?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 17 at 20:25








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $w$ is just another element added to $F$, just like $x,y,z$. I assume another letter is used so it won't be confusing
    $endgroup$
    – just me
    Jan 17 at 20:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This isn't true, if $F[w]$ is supposed to denote a polynomial ring.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 17 at 20:31






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I don’t see how this could be true. This is equivalent to taking $F[x,y,z]/K$, where $K$ is generated by $x$, $y$, and $xy-z^2$, which is the same as the ideal generated by $x$, $y$, and $z^2$. But in this quotient, $z+Kneq 0$, since $znotin K$, but $(z+K)^2 = 0$, But $F[w]$ has no nonzero nilpotent elements. When you say you “need to prove it”, does that mean you were told it was true, or does it mean you really, really, really want it to be true, but don’t know if it is?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 20:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: Sigh, fine. “If that is what you were told, then what you were told is incorrect.” (As opposed to what he heard/understood/deduced being incorrect). Happy now? ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 22:26
















0












$begingroup$


This question is quite specific, so apologies in advance. I don't have a clue of how to approach this. Answers and links to more general versions of this will also be very welcomed.



Let $F$ be a field and $A = F[x,y,z]$. $J=langle xy-z^2 rangle$ is an ideal in $A$. Denote $R=A/J$, and let $I=langle x+J, y+J rangle =langle x+J rangle + langle y+J rangle $ be an ideal in $R$.



I need to prove that $R/I cong F[w]$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is $w$ supposed to be?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 17 at 20:25








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $w$ is just another element added to $F$, just like $x,y,z$. I assume another letter is used so it won't be confusing
    $endgroup$
    – just me
    Jan 17 at 20:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This isn't true, if $F[w]$ is supposed to denote a polynomial ring.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 17 at 20:31






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I don’t see how this could be true. This is equivalent to taking $F[x,y,z]/K$, where $K$ is generated by $x$, $y$, and $xy-z^2$, which is the same as the ideal generated by $x$, $y$, and $z^2$. But in this quotient, $z+Kneq 0$, since $znotin K$, but $(z+K)^2 = 0$, But $F[w]$ has no nonzero nilpotent elements. When you say you “need to prove it”, does that mean you were told it was true, or does it mean you really, really, really want it to be true, but don’t know if it is?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 20:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: Sigh, fine. “If that is what you were told, then what you were told is incorrect.” (As opposed to what he heard/understood/deduced being incorrect). Happy now? ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 22:26














0












0








0





$begingroup$


This question is quite specific, so apologies in advance. I don't have a clue of how to approach this. Answers and links to more general versions of this will also be very welcomed.



Let $F$ be a field and $A = F[x,y,z]$. $J=langle xy-z^2 rangle$ is an ideal in $A$. Denote $R=A/J$, and let $I=langle x+J, y+J rangle =langle x+J rangle + langle y+J rangle $ be an ideal in $R$.



I need to prove that $R/I cong F[w]$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




This question is quite specific, so apologies in advance. I don't have a clue of how to approach this. Answers and links to more general versions of this will also be very welcomed.



Let $F$ be a field and $A = F[x,y,z]$. $J=langle xy-z^2 rangle$ is an ideal in $A$. Denote $R=A/J$, and let $I=langle x+J, y+J rangle =langle x+J rangle + langle y+J rangle $ be an ideal in $R$.



I need to prove that $R/I cong F[w]$.







abstract-algebra ring-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 17 at 20:40







just me

















asked Jan 17 at 20:20









just mejust me

184




184












  • $begingroup$
    What is $w$ supposed to be?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 17 at 20:25








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $w$ is just another element added to $F$, just like $x,y,z$. I assume another letter is used so it won't be confusing
    $endgroup$
    – just me
    Jan 17 at 20:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This isn't true, if $F[w]$ is supposed to denote a polynomial ring.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 17 at 20:31






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I don’t see how this could be true. This is equivalent to taking $F[x,y,z]/K$, where $K$ is generated by $x$, $y$, and $xy-z^2$, which is the same as the ideal generated by $x$, $y$, and $z^2$. But in this quotient, $z+Kneq 0$, since $znotin K$, but $(z+K)^2 = 0$, But $F[w]$ has no nonzero nilpotent elements. When you say you “need to prove it”, does that mean you were told it was true, or does it mean you really, really, really want it to be true, but don’t know if it is?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 20:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: Sigh, fine. “If that is what you were told, then what you were told is incorrect.” (As opposed to what he heard/understood/deduced being incorrect). Happy now? ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 22:26


















  • $begingroup$
    What is $w$ supposed to be?
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 17 at 20:25








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $w$ is just another element added to $F$, just like $x,y,z$. I assume another letter is used so it won't be confusing
    $endgroup$
    – just me
    Jan 17 at 20:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This isn't true, if $F[w]$ is supposed to denote a polynomial ring.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 17 at 20:31






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I don’t see how this could be true. This is equivalent to taking $F[x,y,z]/K$, where $K$ is generated by $x$, $y$, and $xy-z^2$, which is the same as the ideal generated by $x$, $y$, and $z^2$. But in this quotient, $z+Kneq 0$, since $znotin K$, but $(z+K)^2 = 0$, But $F[w]$ has no nonzero nilpotent elements. When you say you “need to prove it”, does that mean you were told it was true, or does it mean you really, really, really want it to be true, but don’t know if it is?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 20:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: Sigh, fine. “If that is what you were told, then what you were told is incorrect.” (As opposed to what he heard/understood/deduced being incorrect). Happy now? ;-)
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jan 17 at 22:26
















$begingroup$
What is $w$ supposed to be?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 17 at 20:25






$begingroup$
What is $w$ supposed to be?
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 17 at 20:25






1




1




$begingroup$
$w$ is just another element added to $F$, just like $x,y,z$. I assume another letter is used so it won't be confusing
$endgroup$
– just me
Jan 17 at 20:27




$begingroup$
$w$ is just another element added to $F$, just like $x,y,z$. I assume another letter is used so it won't be confusing
$endgroup$
– just me
Jan 17 at 20:27




1




1




$begingroup$
This isn't true, if $F[w]$ is supposed to denote a polynomial ring.
$endgroup$
– Eric Wofsey
Jan 17 at 20:31




$begingroup$
This isn't true, if $F[w]$ is supposed to denote a polynomial ring.
$endgroup$
– Eric Wofsey
Jan 17 at 20:31




3




3




$begingroup$
I don’t see how this could be true. This is equivalent to taking $F[x,y,z]/K$, where $K$ is generated by $x$, $y$, and $xy-z^2$, which is the same as the ideal generated by $x$, $y$, and $z^2$. But in this quotient, $z+Kneq 0$, since $znotin K$, but $(z+K)^2 = 0$, But $F[w]$ has no nonzero nilpotent elements. When you say you “need to prove it”, does that mean you were told it was true, or does it mean you really, really, really want it to be true, but don’t know if it is?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 17 at 20:32




$begingroup$
I don’t see how this could be true. This is equivalent to taking $F[x,y,z]/K$, where $K$ is generated by $x$, $y$, and $xy-z^2$, which is the same as the ideal generated by $x$, $y$, and $z^2$. But in this quotient, $z+Kneq 0$, since $znotin K$, but $(z+K)^2 = 0$, But $F[w]$ has no nonzero nilpotent elements. When you say you “need to prove it”, does that mean you were told it was true, or does it mean you really, really, really want it to be true, but don’t know if it is?
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 17 at 20:32




1




1




$begingroup$
@Servaes: Sigh, fine. “If that is what you were told, then what you were told is incorrect.” (As opposed to what he heard/understood/deduced being incorrect). Happy now? ;-)
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 17 at 22:26




$begingroup$
@Servaes: Sigh, fine. “If that is what you were told, then what you were told is incorrect.” (As opposed to what he heard/understood/deduced being incorrect). Happy now? ;-)
$endgroup$
– Arturo Magidin
Jan 17 at 22:26










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

By basic commutative algebra there are canonical isomorphisms
$$(A/langle xy-z^2rangle)/langle x+J,y+Jranglecong A/langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=A/langle x,y,z^2ranglecong F[z]/langle z^2rangle,$$
where the middle identity comes frome the simple fact that $langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=langle x,y,z^2rangle$. It is not hard to prove (exercise for you?) that for any field $F$ you have
$$F[z]/langle z^2ranglenotcong F[w].$$
In particular, what you are asked to prove is false.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Assuming you meant $I = langle x + J, z + Jrangle $:



    There’s a bijection between $I subseteq A / J$ and $J subseteq I’ subseteq A$ given by $pi:A to A / J$, $x mapsto x + J$, which gives $pi (I’) = I$.
    We can verify that $pi (xA + zA) = I$, that is



    $$I = I’ / J = (xA + zA) / J$$



    By the Third Isomorphism Theorem we have



    $$R/I = A/J/I = (A/J)/(A/I’) simeq A /I’ = A/(xA+zA)$$



    Finally, we can construct an isomorphism (“cancel out x and z”) and see that
    $$A/(xA+zA) = F[x, y, z] / (xF[x, y, z] + zF[x, y, z]) simeq F[w]$$



    Thus $R/I simeq F[w]$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      This is actually a decent guess at what the assigner may have meant...
      $endgroup$
      – Arturo Magidin
      Jan 18 at 18:02










    • $begingroup$
      Use langle and rangle, not < and >. The former are delimiters, the latter is a binary operator; they get different spacing assigned by TeX and MathJax.
      $endgroup$
      – Arturo Magidin
      Jan 18 at 18:02










    • $begingroup$
      Noted, thank you!
      $endgroup$
      – Trouble
      Jan 18 at 18:23



















    0












    $begingroup$

    Let's try and clear up things before starting. If $tilde{x}=x+J$, $tilde{y}=y+J$ and $tilde{z}=z+J$ as elements of $R=A/J$, then all three elements are nonzero (easy degree considerations); however, $tilde{z}^2=0+Jin I=langletilde{x},tilde{y}rangle$. Hence $I$ is not a prime ideal. Thus the request to prove that $R/Icong F[w]$ should be interpreted in the sense




    prove that $R/I$ is generated by a single element as an $F$-algebra.




    It is not possible that $w$ is an indeterminate over $F$, because $R/I$ is not a domain.





    Let $A$ be a ring with an ideal $J$. If $R=A/J$ and $I$ is an ideal of $R$, there is a unique ideal $I'$ of $A$ such that $Jsubseteq I'$ and $I=I'/J$.



    Also, $R/Icong A/I'$.



    What's $I'$ in your case? It is simply $langle x,yrangle+J$ (prove it).



    Therefore the ring $A/I'$ is generated, as an $F$-algebra, by a single element, namely the image of $z$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2












      $begingroup$

      By basic commutative algebra there are canonical isomorphisms
      $$(A/langle xy-z^2rangle)/langle x+J,y+Jranglecong A/langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=A/langle x,y,z^2ranglecong F[z]/langle z^2rangle,$$
      where the middle identity comes frome the simple fact that $langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=langle x,y,z^2rangle$. It is not hard to prove (exercise for you?) that for any field $F$ you have
      $$F[z]/langle z^2ranglenotcong F[w].$$
      In particular, what you are asked to prove is false.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        By basic commutative algebra there are canonical isomorphisms
        $$(A/langle xy-z^2rangle)/langle x+J,y+Jranglecong A/langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=A/langle x,y,z^2ranglecong F[z]/langle z^2rangle,$$
        where the middle identity comes frome the simple fact that $langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=langle x,y,z^2rangle$. It is not hard to prove (exercise for you?) that for any field $F$ you have
        $$F[z]/langle z^2ranglenotcong F[w].$$
        In particular, what you are asked to prove is false.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          By basic commutative algebra there are canonical isomorphisms
          $$(A/langle xy-z^2rangle)/langle x+J,y+Jranglecong A/langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=A/langle x,y,z^2ranglecong F[z]/langle z^2rangle,$$
          where the middle identity comes frome the simple fact that $langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=langle x,y,z^2rangle$. It is not hard to prove (exercise for you?) that for any field $F$ you have
          $$F[z]/langle z^2ranglenotcong F[w].$$
          In particular, what you are asked to prove is false.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          By basic commutative algebra there are canonical isomorphisms
          $$(A/langle xy-z^2rangle)/langle x+J,y+Jranglecong A/langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=A/langle x,y,z^2ranglecong F[z]/langle z^2rangle,$$
          where the middle identity comes frome the simple fact that $langle x,y,xy-z^2rangle=langle x,y,z^2rangle$. It is not hard to prove (exercise for you?) that for any field $F$ you have
          $$F[z]/langle z^2ranglenotcong F[w].$$
          In particular, what you are asked to prove is false.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 17 at 21:57









          ServaesServaes

          30.6k342101




          30.6k342101























              1












              $begingroup$

              Assuming you meant $I = langle x + J, z + Jrangle $:



              There’s a bijection between $I subseteq A / J$ and $J subseteq I’ subseteq A$ given by $pi:A to A / J$, $x mapsto x + J$, which gives $pi (I’) = I$.
              We can verify that $pi (xA + zA) = I$, that is



              $$I = I’ / J = (xA + zA) / J$$



              By the Third Isomorphism Theorem we have



              $$R/I = A/J/I = (A/J)/(A/I’) simeq A /I’ = A/(xA+zA)$$



              Finally, we can construct an isomorphism (“cancel out x and z”) and see that
              $$A/(xA+zA) = F[x, y, z] / (xF[x, y, z] + zF[x, y, z]) simeq F[w]$$



              Thus $R/I simeq F[w]$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                This is actually a decent guess at what the assigner may have meant...
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Use langle and rangle, not < and >. The former are delimiters, the latter is a binary operator; they get different spacing assigned by TeX and MathJax.
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Noted, thank you!
                $endgroup$
                – Trouble
                Jan 18 at 18:23
















              1












              $begingroup$

              Assuming you meant $I = langle x + J, z + Jrangle $:



              There’s a bijection between $I subseteq A / J$ and $J subseteq I’ subseteq A$ given by $pi:A to A / J$, $x mapsto x + J$, which gives $pi (I’) = I$.
              We can verify that $pi (xA + zA) = I$, that is



              $$I = I’ / J = (xA + zA) / J$$



              By the Third Isomorphism Theorem we have



              $$R/I = A/J/I = (A/J)/(A/I’) simeq A /I’ = A/(xA+zA)$$



              Finally, we can construct an isomorphism (“cancel out x and z”) and see that
              $$A/(xA+zA) = F[x, y, z] / (xF[x, y, z] + zF[x, y, z]) simeq F[w]$$



              Thus $R/I simeq F[w]$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                This is actually a decent guess at what the assigner may have meant...
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Use langle and rangle, not < and >. The former are delimiters, the latter is a binary operator; they get different spacing assigned by TeX and MathJax.
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Noted, thank you!
                $endgroup$
                – Trouble
                Jan 18 at 18:23














              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              Assuming you meant $I = langle x + J, z + Jrangle $:



              There’s a bijection between $I subseteq A / J$ and $J subseteq I’ subseteq A$ given by $pi:A to A / J$, $x mapsto x + J$, which gives $pi (I’) = I$.
              We can verify that $pi (xA + zA) = I$, that is



              $$I = I’ / J = (xA + zA) / J$$



              By the Third Isomorphism Theorem we have



              $$R/I = A/J/I = (A/J)/(A/I’) simeq A /I’ = A/(xA+zA)$$



              Finally, we can construct an isomorphism (“cancel out x and z”) and see that
              $$A/(xA+zA) = F[x, y, z] / (xF[x, y, z] + zF[x, y, z]) simeq F[w]$$



              Thus $R/I simeq F[w]$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Assuming you meant $I = langle x + J, z + Jrangle $:



              There’s a bijection between $I subseteq A / J$ and $J subseteq I’ subseteq A$ given by $pi:A to A / J$, $x mapsto x + J$, which gives $pi (I’) = I$.
              We can verify that $pi (xA + zA) = I$, that is



              $$I = I’ / J = (xA + zA) / J$$



              By the Third Isomorphism Theorem we have



              $$R/I = A/J/I = (A/J)/(A/I’) simeq A /I’ = A/(xA+zA)$$



              Finally, we can construct an isomorphism (“cancel out x and z”) and see that
              $$A/(xA+zA) = F[x, y, z] / (xF[x, y, z] + zF[x, y, z]) simeq F[w]$$



              Thus $R/I simeq F[w]$.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Jan 18 at 18:03









              Arturo Magidin

              266k34591922




              266k34591922










              answered Jan 17 at 23:14









              TroubleTrouble

              46429




              46429












              • $begingroup$
                This is actually a decent guess at what the assigner may have meant...
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Use langle and rangle, not < and >. The former are delimiters, the latter is a binary operator; they get different spacing assigned by TeX and MathJax.
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Noted, thank you!
                $endgroup$
                – Trouble
                Jan 18 at 18:23


















              • $begingroup$
                This is actually a decent guess at what the assigner may have meant...
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Use langle and rangle, not < and >. The former are delimiters, the latter is a binary operator; they get different spacing assigned by TeX and MathJax.
                $endgroup$
                – Arturo Magidin
                Jan 18 at 18:02










              • $begingroup$
                Noted, thank you!
                $endgroup$
                – Trouble
                Jan 18 at 18:23
















              $begingroup$
              This is actually a decent guess at what the assigner may have meant...
              $endgroup$
              – Arturo Magidin
              Jan 18 at 18:02




              $begingroup$
              This is actually a decent guess at what the assigner may have meant...
              $endgroup$
              – Arturo Magidin
              Jan 18 at 18:02












              $begingroup$
              Use langle and rangle, not < and >. The former are delimiters, the latter is a binary operator; they get different spacing assigned by TeX and MathJax.
              $endgroup$
              – Arturo Magidin
              Jan 18 at 18:02




              $begingroup$
              Use langle and rangle, not < and >. The former are delimiters, the latter is a binary operator; they get different spacing assigned by TeX and MathJax.
              $endgroup$
              – Arturo Magidin
              Jan 18 at 18:02












              $begingroup$
              Noted, thank you!
              $endgroup$
              – Trouble
              Jan 18 at 18:23




              $begingroup$
              Noted, thank you!
              $endgroup$
              – Trouble
              Jan 18 at 18:23











              0












              $begingroup$

              Let's try and clear up things before starting. If $tilde{x}=x+J$, $tilde{y}=y+J$ and $tilde{z}=z+J$ as elements of $R=A/J$, then all three elements are nonzero (easy degree considerations); however, $tilde{z}^2=0+Jin I=langletilde{x},tilde{y}rangle$. Hence $I$ is not a prime ideal. Thus the request to prove that $R/Icong F[w]$ should be interpreted in the sense




              prove that $R/I$ is generated by a single element as an $F$-algebra.




              It is not possible that $w$ is an indeterminate over $F$, because $R/I$ is not a domain.





              Let $A$ be a ring with an ideal $J$. If $R=A/J$ and $I$ is an ideal of $R$, there is a unique ideal $I'$ of $A$ such that $Jsubseteq I'$ and $I=I'/J$.



              Also, $R/Icong A/I'$.



              What's $I'$ in your case? It is simply $langle x,yrangle+J$ (prove it).



              Therefore the ring $A/I'$ is generated, as an $F$-algebra, by a single element, namely the image of $z$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Let's try and clear up things before starting. If $tilde{x}=x+J$, $tilde{y}=y+J$ and $tilde{z}=z+J$ as elements of $R=A/J$, then all three elements are nonzero (easy degree considerations); however, $tilde{z}^2=0+Jin I=langletilde{x},tilde{y}rangle$. Hence $I$ is not a prime ideal. Thus the request to prove that $R/Icong F[w]$ should be interpreted in the sense




                prove that $R/I$ is generated by a single element as an $F$-algebra.




                It is not possible that $w$ is an indeterminate over $F$, because $R/I$ is not a domain.





                Let $A$ be a ring with an ideal $J$. If $R=A/J$ and $I$ is an ideal of $R$, there is a unique ideal $I'$ of $A$ such that $Jsubseteq I'$ and $I=I'/J$.



                Also, $R/Icong A/I'$.



                What's $I'$ in your case? It is simply $langle x,yrangle+J$ (prove it).



                Therefore the ring $A/I'$ is generated, as an $F$-algebra, by a single element, namely the image of $z$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Let's try and clear up things before starting. If $tilde{x}=x+J$, $tilde{y}=y+J$ and $tilde{z}=z+J$ as elements of $R=A/J$, then all three elements are nonzero (easy degree considerations); however, $tilde{z}^2=0+Jin I=langletilde{x},tilde{y}rangle$. Hence $I$ is not a prime ideal. Thus the request to prove that $R/Icong F[w]$ should be interpreted in the sense




                  prove that $R/I$ is generated by a single element as an $F$-algebra.




                  It is not possible that $w$ is an indeterminate over $F$, because $R/I$ is not a domain.





                  Let $A$ be a ring with an ideal $J$. If $R=A/J$ and $I$ is an ideal of $R$, there is a unique ideal $I'$ of $A$ such that $Jsubseteq I'$ and $I=I'/J$.



                  Also, $R/Icong A/I'$.



                  What's $I'$ in your case? It is simply $langle x,yrangle+J$ (prove it).



                  Therefore the ring $A/I'$ is generated, as an $F$-algebra, by a single element, namely the image of $z$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Let's try and clear up things before starting. If $tilde{x}=x+J$, $tilde{y}=y+J$ and $tilde{z}=z+J$ as elements of $R=A/J$, then all three elements are nonzero (easy degree considerations); however, $tilde{z}^2=0+Jin I=langletilde{x},tilde{y}rangle$. Hence $I$ is not a prime ideal. Thus the request to prove that $R/Icong F[w]$ should be interpreted in the sense




                  prove that $R/I$ is generated by a single element as an $F$-algebra.




                  It is not possible that $w$ is an indeterminate over $F$, because $R/I$ is not a domain.





                  Let $A$ be a ring with an ideal $J$. If $R=A/J$ and $I$ is an ideal of $R$, there is a unique ideal $I'$ of $A$ such that $Jsubseteq I'$ and $I=I'/J$.



                  Also, $R/Icong A/I'$.



                  What's $I'$ in your case? It is simply $langle x,yrangle+J$ (prove it).



                  Therefore the ring $A/I'$ is generated, as an $F$-algebra, by a single element, namely the image of $z$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 18 at 8:23









                  egregegreg

                  186k1486208




                  186k1486208






























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