Hoeffding inequality for conditional probability (conditioned on event)












2












$begingroup$


Suppose I have independent $X_1simtext{Bin}(n,theta_1)$, $X_2simtext{Bin}(n,theta_2)$ with $X=X_1+X_2$. Suppose that $theta_1,theta_2in(0,1)$. Define the constant (but still depends on $n$) $a=ntheta_0+o(n^{2/3})$, for $theta_0in(0,1)$. I'd like to show the following:
$$
Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)to 0
$$

as $ntoinfty$ for some "large enough" $c$. Note that the parameters, $theta$'s, for $X_1$ and $X_2$ may not be the same, so that $X$ is not necessarily a binomial random variable.



Usually, in the marginal case, without the conditioning event, Hoeffding's inequality can be used to get the convergence. Is there a known inequality (like Chernoff or Hoeffding's) to show the exponential convergence for such a quantity conditioned on an event?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ just restricted in $[0, 1]$, or do we know more (e.g. $theta < theta_1$).
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Chen
    Jan 20 at 0:06










  • $begingroup$
    $theta$ is bounded away from 0 and 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 0:46










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean bounded "away from" zero and one? Do you mean $theta in (-infty, 0) cup (1, infty)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Jan 20 at 16:06












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry. @LeeDavidChungLin I meant $thetain(0,1)$. I am not interested in $theta=0$ or 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 16:09












  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ the same as $theta_0,theta_1,theta_2$? An easy case is that $P(X>c)$ is already exponentially small. Maybe that's all you want?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:38
















2












$begingroup$


Suppose I have independent $X_1simtext{Bin}(n,theta_1)$, $X_2simtext{Bin}(n,theta_2)$ with $X=X_1+X_2$. Suppose that $theta_1,theta_2in(0,1)$. Define the constant (but still depends on $n$) $a=ntheta_0+o(n^{2/3})$, for $theta_0in(0,1)$. I'd like to show the following:
$$
Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)to 0
$$

as $ntoinfty$ for some "large enough" $c$. Note that the parameters, $theta$'s, for $X_1$ and $X_2$ may not be the same, so that $X$ is not necessarily a binomial random variable.



Usually, in the marginal case, without the conditioning event, Hoeffding's inequality can be used to get the convergence. Is there a known inequality (like Chernoff or Hoeffding's) to show the exponential convergence for such a quantity conditioned on an event?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ just restricted in $[0, 1]$, or do we know more (e.g. $theta < theta_1$).
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Chen
    Jan 20 at 0:06










  • $begingroup$
    $theta$ is bounded away from 0 and 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 0:46










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean bounded "away from" zero and one? Do you mean $theta in (-infty, 0) cup (1, infty)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Jan 20 at 16:06












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry. @LeeDavidChungLin I meant $thetain(0,1)$. I am not interested in $theta=0$ or 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 16:09












  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ the same as $theta_0,theta_1,theta_2$? An easy case is that $P(X>c)$ is already exponentially small. Maybe that's all you want?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:38














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


Suppose I have independent $X_1simtext{Bin}(n,theta_1)$, $X_2simtext{Bin}(n,theta_2)$ with $X=X_1+X_2$. Suppose that $theta_1,theta_2in(0,1)$. Define the constant (but still depends on $n$) $a=ntheta_0+o(n^{2/3})$, for $theta_0in(0,1)$. I'd like to show the following:
$$
Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)to 0
$$

as $ntoinfty$ for some "large enough" $c$. Note that the parameters, $theta$'s, for $X_1$ and $X_2$ may not be the same, so that $X$ is not necessarily a binomial random variable.



Usually, in the marginal case, without the conditioning event, Hoeffding's inequality can be used to get the convergence. Is there a known inequality (like Chernoff or Hoeffding's) to show the exponential convergence for such a quantity conditioned on an event?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose I have independent $X_1simtext{Bin}(n,theta_1)$, $X_2simtext{Bin}(n,theta_2)$ with $X=X_1+X_2$. Suppose that $theta_1,theta_2in(0,1)$. Define the constant (but still depends on $n$) $a=ntheta_0+o(n^{2/3})$, for $theta_0in(0,1)$. I'd like to show the following:
$$
Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)to 0
$$

as $ntoinfty$ for some "large enough" $c$. Note that the parameters, $theta$'s, for $X_1$ and $X_2$ may not be the same, so that $X$ is not necessarily a binomial random variable.



Usually, in the marginal case, without the conditioning event, Hoeffding's inequality can be used to get the convergence. Is there a known inequality (like Chernoff or Hoeffding's) to show the exponential convergence for such a quantity conditioned on an event?







inequality probability-distributions reference-request asymptotics large-deviation-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 23 at 0:36







stats134711

















asked Sep 5 '18 at 5:28









stats134711stats134711

187215




187215












  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ just restricted in $[0, 1]$, or do we know more (e.g. $theta < theta_1$).
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Chen
    Jan 20 at 0:06










  • $begingroup$
    $theta$ is bounded away from 0 and 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 0:46










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean bounded "away from" zero and one? Do you mean $theta in (-infty, 0) cup (1, infty)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Jan 20 at 16:06












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry. @LeeDavidChungLin I meant $thetain(0,1)$. I am not interested in $theta=0$ or 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 16:09












  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ the same as $theta_0,theta_1,theta_2$? An easy case is that $P(X>c)$ is already exponentially small. Maybe that's all you want?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:38


















  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ just restricted in $[0, 1]$, or do we know more (e.g. $theta < theta_1$).
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Chen
    Jan 20 at 0:06










  • $begingroup$
    $theta$ is bounded away from 0 and 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 0:46










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean bounded "away from" zero and one? Do you mean $theta in (-infty, 0) cup (1, infty)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Lee David Chung Lin
    Jan 20 at 16:06












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry. @LeeDavidChungLin I meant $thetain(0,1)$. I am not interested in $theta=0$ or 1
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 20 at 16:09












  • $begingroup$
    Is $theta$ the same as $theta_0,theta_1,theta_2$? An easy case is that $P(X>c)$ is already exponentially small. Maybe that's all you want?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:38
















$begingroup$
Is $theta$ just restricted in $[0, 1]$, or do we know more (e.g. $theta < theta_1$).
$endgroup$
– Tom Chen
Jan 20 at 0:06




$begingroup$
Is $theta$ just restricted in $[0, 1]$, or do we know more (e.g. $theta < theta_1$).
$endgroup$
– Tom Chen
Jan 20 at 0:06












$begingroup$
$theta$ is bounded away from 0 and 1
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 20 at 0:46




$begingroup$
$theta$ is bounded away from 0 and 1
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 20 at 0:46












$begingroup$
What do you mean bounded "away from" zero and one? Do you mean $theta in (-infty, 0) cup (1, infty)$?
$endgroup$
– Lee David Chung Lin
Jan 20 at 16:06






$begingroup$
What do you mean bounded "away from" zero and one? Do you mean $theta in (-infty, 0) cup (1, infty)$?
$endgroup$
– Lee David Chung Lin
Jan 20 at 16:06














$begingroup$
Sorry. @LeeDavidChungLin I meant $thetain(0,1)$. I am not interested in $theta=0$ or 1
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 20 at 16:09






$begingroup$
Sorry. @LeeDavidChungLin I meant $thetain(0,1)$. I am not interested in $theta=0$ or 1
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 20 at 16:09














$begingroup$
Is $theta$ the same as $theta_0,theta_1,theta_2$? An easy case is that $P(X>c)$ is already exponentially small. Maybe that's all you want?
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 21 at 6:38




$begingroup$
Is $theta$ the same as $theta_0,theta_1,theta_2$? An easy case is that $P(X>c)$ is already exponentially small. Maybe that's all you want?
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 21 at 6:38










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

The FKG inequality, or more specifically Harris inequality, gives
$$P(X>c mid X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a) leq P ( X > c).$$



I will describe in more detail how FKG applies. Let $A$ be the event $X> c$ and let $B$ be the event that $X_1,X_2leq a.$ We want to prove $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$



The FKG lattice condition is always satisfied for a product measure $mu=mu_1timesmu_2$ defined on a Cartesian product of finite totally ordered sets, here $L={0,1,dots,n}^2.$ We are using $$(mu_1timesmu_1)({(x_1,x_1)})=mathbb P[X_1=x_1, X_2=x_2].$$



Let $1_A$ and $1_B$ denote the indicator functions of the events $A$ and $B$ respectively. Since $1_A$ is an increasing function on $L$ and $1_B$ is a decreasing function on $L,$ the FKG inequality says
$$sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)1_B(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L}mu(x)leq sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L} 1_B(x)mu(x),$$ which is just $P(Acap B)cdot 1leq P(A)P(B),$ so $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry. I accidentally rewarded the other post with the bounty. I meant to give it to you.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 23 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    Ha, thanks anyway
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 23 at 4:58



















0





+50







$begingroup$

You might just try using the definition of conditional expectation. Since begin{align}P ( X > c | X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a ) &= frac{P ( X > c cap X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a )}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)} \
&leq frac{P ( X > c)}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)}, end{align}

you could just apply Hoeffding's inequality to the numerator assuming $a$ is fixed.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Unfortunately, $atoinfty$ as $ntoinfty$, and there is no guarantee that the denominator is $1-o(1)$ as $ntoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 21 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    The FKG inequality gives this without the denominator i.e. $Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)leq P(X>c).$ @stats134711 would this be enough for your situation?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 22 at 20:23










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it seems that inequality would be enough. I'm not familiar with that inequality - could you please formalize it in the context of the scenario above?
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 22 at 20:28












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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

The FKG inequality, or more specifically Harris inequality, gives
$$P(X>c mid X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a) leq P ( X > c).$$



I will describe in more detail how FKG applies. Let $A$ be the event $X> c$ and let $B$ be the event that $X_1,X_2leq a.$ We want to prove $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$



The FKG lattice condition is always satisfied for a product measure $mu=mu_1timesmu_2$ defined on a Cartesian product of finite totally ordered sets, here $L={0,1,dots,n}^2.$ We are using $$(mu_1timesmu_1)({(x_1,x_1)})=mathbb P[X_1=x_1, X_2=x_2].$$



Let $1_A$ and $1_B$ denote the indicator functions of the events $A$ and $B$ respectively. Since $1_A$ is an increasing function on $L$ and $1_B$ is a decreasing function on $L,$ the FKG inequality says
$$sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)1_B(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L}mu(x)leq sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L} 1_B(x)mu(x),$$ which is just $P(Acap B)cdot 1leq P(A)P(B),$ so $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry. I accidentally rewarded the other post with the bounty. I meant to give it to you.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 23 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    Ha, thanks anyway
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 23 at 4:58
















1












$begingroup$

The FKG inequality, or more specifically Harris inequality, gives
$$P(X>c mid X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a) leq P ( X > c).$$



I will describe in more detail how FKG applies. Let $A$ be the event $X> c$ and let $B$ be the event that $X_1,X_2leq a.$ We want to prove $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$



The FKG lattice condition is always satisfied for a product measure $mu=mu_1timesmu_2$ defined on a Cartesian product of finite totally ordered sets, here $L={0,1,dots,n}^2.$ We are using $$(mu_1timesmu_1)({(x_1,x_1)})=mathbb P[X_1=x_1, X_2=x_2].$$



Let $1_A$ and $1_B$ denote the indicator functions of the events $A$ and $B$ respectively. Since $1_A$ is an increasing function on $L$ and $1_B$ is a decreasing function on $L,$ the FKG inequality says
$$sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)1_B(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L}mu(x)leq sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L} 1_B(x)mu(x),$$ which is just $P(Acap B)cdot 1leq P(A)P(B),$ so $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry. I accidentally rewarded the other post with the bounty. I meant to give it to you.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 23 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    Ha, thanks anyway
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 23 at 4:58














1












1








1





$begingroup$

The FKG inequality, or more specifically Harris inequality, gives
$$P(X>c mid X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a) leq P ( X > c).$$



I will describe in more detail how FKG applies. Let $A$ be the event $X> c$ and let $B$ be the event that $X_1,X_2leq a.$ We want to prove $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$



The FKG lattice condition is always satisfied for a product measure $mu=mu_1timesmu_2$ defined on a Cartesian product of finite totally ordered sets, here $L={0,1,dots,n}^2.$ We are using $$(mu_1timesmu_1)({(x_1,x_1)})=mathbb P[X_1=x_1, X_2=x_2].$$



Let $1_A$ and $1_B$ denote the indicator functions of the events $A$ and $B$ respectively. Since $1_A$ is an increasing function on $L$ and $1_B$ is a decreasing function on $L,$ the FKG inequality says
$$sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)1_B(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L}mu(x)leq sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L} 1_B(x)mu(x),$$ which is just $P(Acap B)cdot 1leq P(A)P(B),$ so $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



The FKG inequality, or more specifically Harris inequality, gives
$$P(X>c mid X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a) leq P ( X > c).$$



I will describe in more detail how FKG applies. Let $A$ be the event $X> c$ and let $B$ be the event that $X_1,X_2leq a.$ We want to prove $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$



The FKG lattice condition is always satisfied for a product measure $mu=mu_1timesmu_2$ defined on a Cartesian product of finite totally ordered sets, here $L={0,1,dots,n}^2.$ We are using $$(mu_1timesmu_1)({(x_1,x_1)})=mathbb P[X_1=x_1, X_2=x_2].$$



Let $1_A$ and $1_B$ denote the indicator functions of the events $A$ and $B$ respectively. Since $1_A$ is an increasing function on $L$ and $1_B$ is a decreasing function on $L,$ the FKG inequality says
$$sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)1_B(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L}mu(x)leq sum_{xin L} 1_A(x)mu(x)sum_{xin L} 1_B(x)mu(x),$$ which is just $P(Acap B)cdot 1leq P(A)P(B),$ so $P(Amid B)leq P(A).$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 22 at 20:47









DapDap

20.2k842




20.2k842












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry. I accidentally rewarded the other post with the bounty. I meant to give it to you.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 23 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    Ha, thanks anyway
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 23 at 4:58


















  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry. I accidentally rewarded the other post with the bounty. I meant to give it to you.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 23 at 1:36










  • $begingroup$
    Ha, thanks anyway
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 23 at 4:58
















$begingroup$
I'm sorry. I accidentally rewarded the other post with the bounty. I meant to give it to you.
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 23 at 1:36




$begingroup$
I'm sorry. I accidentally rewarded the other post with the bounty. I meant to give it to you.
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 23 at 1:36












$begingroup$
Ha, thanks anyway
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 23 at 4:58




$begingroup$
Ha, thanks anyway
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 23 at 4:58











0





+50







$begingroup$

You might just try using the definition of conditional expectation. Since begin{align}P ( X > c | X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a ) &= frac{P ( X > c cap X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a )}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)} \
&leq frac{P ( X > c)}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)}, end{align}

you could just apply Hoeffding's inequality to the numerator assuming $a$ is fixed.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Unfortunately, $atoinfty$ as $ntoinfty$, and there is no guarantee that the denominator is $1-o(1)$ as $ntoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 21 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    The FKG inequality gives this without the denominator i.e. $Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)leq P(X>c).$ @stats134711 would this be enough for your situation?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 22 at 20:23










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it seems that inequality would be enough. I'm not familiar with that inequality - could you please formalize it in the context of the scenario above?
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 22 at 20:28
















0





+50







$begingroup$

You might just try using the definition of conditional expectation. Since begin{align}P ( X > c | X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a ) &= frac{P ( X > c cap X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a )}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)} \
&leq frac{P ( X > c)}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)}, end{align}

you could just apply Hoeffding's inequality to the numerator assuming $a$ is fixed.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Unfortunately, $atoinfty$ as $ntoinfty$, and there is no guarantee that the denominator is $1-o(1)$ as $ntoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 21 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    The FKG inequality gives this without the denominator i.e. $Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)leq P(X>c).$ @stats134711 would this be enough for your situation?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 22 at 20:23










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it seems that inequality would be enough. I'm not familiar with that inequality - could you please formalize it in the context of the scenario above?
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 22 at 20:28














0





+50







0





+50



0




+50



$begingroup$

You might just try using the definition of conditional expectation. Since begin{align}P ( X > c | X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a ) &= frac{P ( X > c cap X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a )}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)} \
&leq frac{P ( X > c)}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)}, end{align}

you could just apply Hoeffding's inequality to the numerator assuming $a$ is fixed.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



You might just try using the definition of conditional expectation. Since begin{align}P ( X > c | X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a ) &= frac{P ( X > c cap X _ { 1 } leq a , X _ { 2 } leq a )}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)} \
&leq frac{P ( X > c)}{P(X_1 leq a, X_2 leq a)}, end{align}

you could just apply Hoeffding's inequality to the numerator assuming $a$ is fixed.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 21 at 22:17









OldGodzillaOldGodzilla

57427




57427












  • $begingroup$
    Unfortunately, $atoinfty$ as $ntoinfty$, and there is no guarantee that the denominator is $1-o(1)$ as $ntoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 21 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    The FKG inequality gives this without the denominator i.e. $Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)leq P(X>c).$ @stats134711 would this be enough for your situation?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 22 at 20:23










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it seems that inequality would be enough. I'm not familiar with that inequality - could you please formalize it in the context of the scenario above?
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 22 at 20:28


















  • $begingroup$
    Unfortunately, $atoinfty$ as $ntoinfty$, and there is no guarantee that the denominator is $1-o(1)$ as $ntoinfty$.
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 21 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    The FKG inequality gives this without the denominator i.e. $Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)leq P(X>c).$ @stats134711 would this be enough for your situation?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 22 at 20:23










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, it seems that inequality would be enough. I'm not familiar with that inequality - could you please formalize it in the context of the scenario above?
    $endgroup$
    – stats134711
    Jan 22 at 20:28
















$begingroup$
Unfortunately, $atoinfty$ as $ntoinfty$, and there is no guarantee that the denominator is $1-o(1)$ as $ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 21 at 22:38




$begingroup$
Unfortunately, $atoinfty$ as $ntoinfty$, and there is no guarantee that the denominator is $1-o(1)$ as $ntoinfty$.
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 21 at 22:38












$begingroup$
The FKG inequality gives this without the denominator i.e. $Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)leq P(X>c).$ @stats134711 would this be enough for your situation?
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 22 at 20:23




$begingroup$
The FKG inequality gives this without the denominator i.e. $Pleft(X>cmid X_1leq a,X_2leq aright)leq P(X>c).$ @stats134711 would this be enough for your situation?
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 22 at 20:23












$begingroup$
Yes, it seems that inequality would be enough. I'm not familiar with that inequality - could you please formalize it in the context of the scenario above?
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 22 at 20:28




$begingroup$
Yes, it seems that inequality would be enough. I'm not familiar with that inequality - could you please formalize it in the context of the scenario above?
$endgroup$
– stats134711
Jan 22 at 20:28


















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