Laplace functional for a point process of exceedances












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$begingroup$


Let $$mathit N_n(cdot)=sum_{i=1}^n varepsilon_{frac in}(cdot)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$$ be a point process of exceedances
where $(mathit X_n)$ is a sequence of random variables and $(u_n)$ is a sequence of real numbers.



How do you calculate $$int_{mathit E}g,dN_n$$ for a non-negative measurable function $g$ if we assume state space $E=(0,1]$ ?



I know that in general for a standard point process $N=sum_{i=1}^infty varepsilon_{X_i}$, the integral will be equal to $sum_{i=1}^infty g(X_i)$. However, I am having trouble to determine the above integral.
The most I could get is $int_E g,dN_n=sum_{i=1}^n g(frac in)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$. Is it true?
Any insight will be greatly appreciated. Thank you!










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  • $begingroup$
    After several thoughts, the above expression gave the result I sought in the end. Thank you for those who tried to help!
    $endgroup$
    – Yosua Kanichi Susilo
    Jan 21 at 11:50
















0












$begingroup$


Let $$mathit N_n(cdot)=sum_{i=1}^n varepsilon_{frac in}(cdot)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$$ be a point process of exceedances
where $(mathit X_n)$ is a sequence of random variables and $(u_n)$ is a sequence of real numbers.



How do you calculate $$int_{mathit E}g,dN_n$$ for a non-negative measurable function $g$ if we assume state space $E=(0,1]$ ?



I know that in general for a standard point process $N=sum_{i=1}^infty varepsilon_{X_i}$, the integral will be equal to $sum_{i=1}^infty g(X_i)$. However, I am having trouble to determine the above integral.
The most I could get is $int_E g,dN_n=sum_{i=1}^n g(frac in)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$. Is it true?
Any insight will be greatly appreciated. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    After several thoughts, the above expression gave the result I sought in the end. Thank you for those who tried to help!
    $endgroup$
    – Yosua Kanichi Susilo
    Jan 21 at 11:50














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $$mathit N_n(cdot)=sum_{i=1}^n varepsilon_{frac in}(cdot)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$$ be a point process of exceedances
where $(mathit X_n)$ is a sequence of random variables and $(u_n)$ is a sequence of real numbers.



How do you calculate $$int_{mathit E}g,dN_n$$ for a non-negative measurable function $g$ if we assume state space $E=(0,1]$ ?



I know that in general for a standard point process $N=sum_{i=1}^infty varepsilon_{X_i}$, the integral will be equal to $sum_{i=1}^infty g(X_i)$. However, I am having trouble to determine the above integral.
The most I could get is $int_E g,dN_n=sum_{i=1}^n g(frac in)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$. Is it true?
Any insight will be greatly appreciated. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $$mathit N_n(cdot)=sum_{i=1}^n varepsilon_{frac in}(cdot)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$$ be a point process of exceedances
where $(mathit X_n)$ is a sequence of random variables and $(u_n)$ is a sequence of real numbers.



How do you calculate $$int_{mathit E}g,dN_n$$ for a non-negative measurable function $g$ if we assume state space $E=(0,1]$ ?



I know that in general for a standard point process $N=sum_{i=1}^infty varepsilon_{X_i}$, the integral will be equal to $sum_{i=1}^infty g(X_i)$. However, I am having trouble to determine the above integral.
The most I could get is $int_E g,dN_n=sum_{i=1}^n g(frac in)mathit I_{(mathit X_i>u_n)}$. Is it true?
Any insight will be greatly appreciated. Thank you!







real-analysis probability lebesgue-integral laplace-transform






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 21 at 10:53







Yosua Kanichi Susilo

















asked Jan 18 at 17:27









Yosua Kanichi SusiloYosua Kanichi Susilo

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284












  • $begingroup$
    After several thoughts, the above expression gave the result I sought in the end. Thank you for those who tried to help!
    $endgroup$
    – Yosua Kanichi Susilo
    Jan 21 at 11:50


















  • $begingroup$
    After several thoughts, the above expression gave the result I sought in the end. Thank you for those who tried to help!
    $endgroup$
    – Yosua Kanichi Susilo
    Jan 21 at 11:50
















$begingroup$
After several thoughts, the above expression gave the result I sought in the end. Thank you for those who tried to help!
$endgroup$
– Yosua Kanichi Susilo
Jan 21 at 11:50




$begingroup$
After several thoughts, the above expression gave the result I sought in the end. Thank you for those who tried to help!
$endgroup$
– Yosua Kanichi Susilo
Jan 21 at 11:50










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