Proving normality of a subset from its generators












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Exercise 3.26 in Dummit and Foote reads:




Let $N = langle Srangle$ for some subset $S$ of $G$. Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$.




If $S$ is a finite set, I presume the proof is straightforward. Suppose $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$. Any element of $N$ can be written as a product of elements of $S$. The properties of conjugation therefore make that the conjugate of an element of $N$ is a product of conjugates of elements of $S$. Since the latter by the assumption are all in $N$, conjugation will be closed in $N$.



I have two questions, however. First, how to go about an infinite $S$? An element of $N$ could be a product with infinitely many factors, for which the properties of conjugation have not been proven.



Second, I would think that the question might have read:




"Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if and only if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$."




Indeed, if $N trianglelefteq G$, since $S subseteq N$, $gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$, proving the reverse implication.



Did I make a mistake here? (I am suspicious because it is my impression that it is not very like. D&F not to make the most comprehensive statements.)










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How can an element of $N$ be the product of an infinite number of factors? How is that even defined? Cheers!
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Lewis
    Jan 12 at 19:54
















0












$begingroup$


Exercise 3.26 in Dummit and Foote reads:




Let $N = langle Srangle$ for some subset $S$ of $G$. Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$.




If $S$ is a finite set, I presume the proof is straightforward. Suppose $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$. Any element of $N$ can be written as a product of elements of $S$. The properties of conjugation therefore make that the conjugate of an element of $N$ is a product of conjugates of elements of $S$. Since the latter by the assumption are all in $N$, conjugation will be closed in $N$.



I have two questions, however. First, how to go about an infinite $S$? An element of $N$ could be a product with infinitely many factors, for which the properties of conjugation have not been proven.



Second, I would think that the question might have read:




"Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if and only if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$."




Indeed, if $N trianglelefteq G$, since $S subseteq N$, $gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$, proving the reverse implication.



Did I make a mistake here? (I am suspicious because it is my impression that it is not very like. D&F not to make the most comprehensive statements.)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How can an element of $N$ be the product of an infinite number of factors? How is that even defined? Cheers!
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Lewis
    Jan 12 at 19:54














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Exercise 3.26 in Dummit and Foote reads:




Let $N = langle Srangle$ for some subset $S$ of $G$. Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$.




If $S$ is a finite set, I presume the proof is straightforward. Suppose $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$. Any element of $N$ can be written as a product of elements of $S$. The properties of conjugation therefore make that the conjugate of an element of $N$ is a product of conjugates of elements of $S$. Since the latter by the assumption are all in $N$, conjugation will be closed in $N$.



I have two questions, however. First, how to go about an infinite $S$? An element of $N$ could be a product with infinitely many factors, for which the properties of conjugation have not been proven.



Second, I would think that the question might have read:




"Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if and only if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$."




Indeed, if $N trianglelefteq G$, since $S subseteq N$, $gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$, proving the reverse implication.



Did I make a mistake here? (I am suspicious because it is my impression that it is not very like. D&F not to make the most comprehensive statements.)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Exercise 3.26 in Dummit and Foote reads:




Let $N = langle Srangle$ for some subset $S$ of $G$. Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$.




If $S$ is a finite set, I presume the proof is straightforward. Suppose $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$. Any element of $N$ can be written as a product of elements of $S$. The properties of conjugation therefore make that the conjugate of an element of $N$ is a product of conjugates of elements of $S$. Since the latter by the assumption are all in $N$, conjugation will be closed in $N$.



I have two questions, however. First, how to go about an infinite $S$? An element of $N$ could be a product with infinitely many factors, for which the properties of conjugation have not been proven.



Second, I would think that the question might have read:




"Prove that $N trianglelefteq G$ if and only if $ gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$."




Indeed, if $N trianglelefteq G$, since $S subseteq N$, $gSg^{-1} subseteq N$ for all $g in G$, proving the reverse implication.



Did I make a mistake here? (I am suspicious because it is my impression that it is not very like. D&F not to make the most comprehensive statements.)







abstract-algebra group-theory






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edited Jan 13 at 12:41









Shaun

9,442113684




9,442113684










asked Jan 12 at 19:49









Frank De GeeterFrank De Geeter

776




776








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How can an element of $N$ be the product of an infinite number of factors? How is that even defined? Cheers!
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Lewis
    Jan 12 at 19:54














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How can an element of $N$ be the product of an infinite number of factors? How is that even defined? Cheers!
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Lewis
    Jan 12 at 19:54








1




1




$begingroup$
How can an element of $N$ be the product of an infinite number of factors? How is that even defined? Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Jan 12 at 19:54




$begingroup$
How can an element of $N$ be the product of an infinite number of factors? How is that even defined? Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Jan 12 at 19:54










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

$N=langle Srangle$ means by definition that every element in $N$ can be written as a finite product of elements in $S$. Even if $S$ is infinite, only finite products are involved.



The converse direction also holds, you did not make a mistake. But the authors did not mention it because it is not so interesting, since it is a rather trivial statement.






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    $begingroup$

    $N=langle Srangle$ means by definition that every element in $N$ can be written as a finite product of elements in $S$. Even if $S$ is infinite, only finite products are involved.



    The converse direction also holds, you did not make a mistake. But the authors did not mention it because it is not so interesting, since it is a rather trivial statement.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      $N=langle Srangle$ means by definition that every element in $N$ can be written as a finite product of elements in $S$. Even if $S$ is infinite, only finite products are involved.



      The converse direction also holds, you did not make a mistake. But the authors did not mention it because it is not so interesting, since it is a rather trivial statement.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















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        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        $N=langle Srangle$ means by definition that every element in $N$ can be written as a finite product of elements in $S$. Even if $S$ is infinite, only finite products are involved.



        The converse direction also holds, you did not make a mistake. But the authors did not mention it because it is not so interesting, since it is a rather trivial statement.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        $N=langle Srangle$ means by definition that every element in $N$ can be written as a finite product of elements in $S$. Even if $S$ is infinite, only finite products are involved.



        The converse direction also holds, you did not make a mistake. But the authors did not mention it because it is not so interesting, since it is a rather trivial statement.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 13 at 12:43









        Shaun

        9,442113684




        9,442113684










        answered Jan 12 at 21:04









        PedroPedro

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        2,9291720






























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