Inverse Laplace transform of rational function












0












$begingroup$


Is it true that the inverse Laplace transform of a proper rational function (where all the coefficients are real and positive),
begin{equation}
s mapsto frac{a_1 , s^{m-1} + a_2 , s^{m-2} + dotsb + a_{m}}{s^m + b_1 s^{m-1} + dotsb + b_{m}},
end{equation}

can be expressed as $langle b, e^{A t} b rangle$, for a matrix $A in mathbb R^{n times n}$ and a vector $b in mathbb R^n$ and $n geq m$?



I would say that it is, by partial fraction decomposition, inverse Laplace transform of the partial fractions, and using an ansatz of $A$ in normal Jordan form, but would like confirmation or a reference.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    We can always fill up $A$ and $b$ with as many zeros as we wish.
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:24










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but I don't see your point?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:25










  • $begingroup$
    We can make $n$ as large as we want. Isn't it the question?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:27










  • $begingroup$
    The question is: Are there $A, b, n$ (with $n$ possibly larger than $m$), such that the Laplace transform of $<b, e^{-At} b>$ is the rational function given?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:32










  • $begingroup$
    How do you think to write say $e^{-t}-e^{-2t}$ as $langle b,e^{At}brangle$? At $t=0$ it gives $|b|=0$. Do I miss something here?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 21:23
















0












$begingroup$


Is it true that the inverse Laplace transform of a proper rational function (where all the coefficients are real and positive),
begin{equation}
s mapsto frac{a_1 , s^{m-1} + a_2 , s^{m-2} + dotsb + a_{m}}{s^m + b_1 s^{m-1} + dotsb + b_{m}},
end{equation}

can be expressed as $langle b, e^{A t} b rangle$, for a matrix $A in mathbb R^{n times n}$ and a vector $b in mathbb R^n$ and $n geq m$?



I would say that it is, by partial fraction decomposition, inverse Laplace transform of the partial fractions, and using an ansatz of $A$ in normal Jordan form, but would like confirmation or a reference.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    We can always fill up $A$ and $b$ with as many zeros as we wish.
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:24










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but I don't see your point?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:25










  • $begingroup$
    We can make $n$ as large as we want. Isn't it the question?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:27










  • $begingroup$
    The question is: Are there $A, b, n$ (with $n$ possibly larger than $m$), such that the Laplace transform of $<b, e^{-At} b>$ is the rational function given?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:32










  • $begingroup$
    How do you think to write say $e^{-t}-e^{-2t}$ as $langle b,e^{At}brangle$? At $t=0$ it gives $|b|=0$. Do I miss something here?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 21:23














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Is it true that the inverse Laplace transform of a proper rational function (where all the coefficients are real and positive),
begin{equation}
s mapsto frac{a_1 , s^{m-1} + a_2 , s^{m-2} + dotsb + a_{m}}{s^m + b_1 s^{m-1} + dotsb + b_{m}},
end{equation}

can be expressed as $langle b, e^{A t} b rangle$, for a matrix $A in mathbb R^{n times n}$ and a vector $b in mathbb R^n$ and $n geq m$?



I would say that it is, by partial fraction decomposition, inverse Laplace transform of the partial fractions, and using an ansatz of $A$ in normal Jordan form, but would like confirmation or a reference.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Is it true that the inverse Laplace transform of a proper rational function (where all the coefficients are real and positive),
begin{equation}
s mapsto frac{a_1 , s^{m-1} + a_2 , s^{m-2} + dotsb + a_{m}}{s^m + b_1 s^{m-1} + dotsb + b_{m}},
end{equation}

can be expressed as $langle b, e^{A t} b rangle$, for a matrix $A in mathbb R^{n times n}$ and a vector $b in mathbb R^n$ and $n geq m$?



I would say that it is, by partial fraction decomposition, inverse Laplace transform of the partial fractions, and using an ansatz of $A$ in normal Jordan form, but would like confirmation or a reference.







laplace-transform






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 12 at 23:00







Roberto Rastapopoulos

















asked Jan 12 at 20:07









Roberto RastapopoulosRoberto Rastapopoulos

955425




955425












  • $begingroup$
    We can always fill up $A$ and $b$ with as many zeros as we wish.
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:24










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but I don't see your point?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:25










  • $begingroup$
    We can make $n$ as large as we want. Isn't it the question?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:27










  • $begingroup$
    The question is: Are there $A, b, n$ (with $n$ possibly larger than $m$), such that the Laplace transform of $<b, e^{-At} b>$ is the rational function given?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:32










  • $begingroup$
    How do you think to write say $e^{-t}-e^{-2t}$ as $langle b,e^{At}brangle$? At $t=0$ it gives $|b|=0$. Do I miss something here?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 21:23


















  • $begingroup$
    We can always fill up $A$ and $b$ with as many zeros as we wish.
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:24










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but I don't see your point?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:25










  • $begingroup$
    We can make $n$ as large as we want. Isn't it the question?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 20:27










  • $begingroup$
    The question is: Are there $A, b, n$ (with $n$ possibly larger than $m$), such that the Laplace transform of $<b, e^{-At} b>$ is the rational function given?
    $endgroup$
    – Roberto Rastapopoulos
    Jan 12 at 20:32










  • $begingroup$
    How do you think to write say $e^{-t}-e^{-2t}$ as $langle b,e^{At}brangle$? At $t=0$ it gives $|b|=0$. Do I miss something here?
    $endgroup$
    – A.Γ.
    Jan 12 at 21:23
















$begingroup$
We can always fill up $A$ and $b$ with as many zeros as we wish.
$endgroup$
– A.Γ.
Jan 12 at 20:24




$begingroup$
We can always fill up $A$ and $b$ with as many zeros as we wish.
$endgroup$
– A.Γ.
Jan 12 at 20:24












$begingroup$
Yes, but I don't see your point?
$endgroup$
– Roberto Rastapopoulos
Jan 12 at 20:25




$begingroup$
Yes, but I don't see your point?
$endgroup$
– Roberto Rastapopoulos
Jan 12 at 20:25












$begingroup$
We can make $n$ as large as we want. Isn't it the question?
$endgroup$
– A.Γ.
Jan 12 at 20:27




$begingroup$
We can make $n$ as large as we want. Isn't it the question?
$endgroup$
– A.Γ.
Jan 12 at 20:27












$begingroup$
The question is: Are there $A, b, n$ (with $n$ possibly larger than $m$), such that the Laplace transform of $<b, e^{-At} b>$ is the rational function given?
$endgroup$
– Roberto Rastapopoulos
Jan 12 at 20:32




$begingroup$
The question is: Are there $A, b, n$ (with $n$ possibly larger than $m$), such that the Laplace transform of $<b, e^{-At} b>$ is the rational function given?
$endgroup$
– Roberto Rastapopoulos
Jan 12 at 20:32












$begingroup$
How do you think to write say $e^{-t}-e^{-2t}$ as $langle b,e^{At}brangle$? At $t=0$ it gives $|b|=0$. Do I miss something here?
$endgroup$
– A.Γ.
Jan 12 at 21:23




$begingroup$
How do you think to write say $e^{-t}-e^{-2t}$ as $langle b,e^{At}brangle$? At $t=0$ it gives $|b|=0$. Do I miss something here?
$endgroup$
– A.Γ.
Jan 12 at 21:23










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