How to show that the set of functions E={f(0)=f(1)=0} is closed in C[0, 1] with respect to the $infty$ norm?...












-4














To do it I need to show that all limit points of E are inside C[0, 1]. How can it be showed?
One option is to show that addition of E is an open set.
The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in E, I think.
But how can it be done correctly?



The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that E contains all its limit points:



1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ - a limit point of the set E $subset$ C[0, 1] $Rightarrow$ $Leftarrow$ $exists${$f_n$} $subset$ E: $f_n to f_0, n to infty, f_n neq f_0$ $forall n in mathbb N $.



2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.










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put on hold as off-topic by Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, John Douma, Paul Frost Dec 26 at 23:33


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, Paul Frost

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.


















    -4














    To do it I need to show that all limit points of E are inside C[0, 1]. How can it be showed?
    One option is to show that addition of E is an open set.
    The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in E, I think.
    But how can it be done correctly?



    The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that E contains all its limit points:



    1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ - a limit point of the set E $subset$ C[0, 1] $Rightarrow$ $Leftarrow$ $exists${$f_n$} $subset$ E: $f_n to f_0, n to infty, f_n neq f_0$ $forall n in mathbb N $.



    2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    shpindler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.











    put on hold as off-topic by Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, John Douma, Paul Frost Dec 26 at 23:33


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, Paul Frost

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















      -4












      -4








      -4







      To do it I need to show that all limit points of E are inside C[0, 1]. How can it be showed?
      One option is to show that addition of E is an open set.
      The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in E, I think.
      But how can it be done correctly?



      The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that E contains all its limit points:



      1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ - a limit point of the set E $subset$ C[0, 1] $Rightarrow$ $Leftarrow$ $exists${$f_n$} $subset$ E: $f_n to f_0, n to infty, f_n neq f_0$ $forall n in mathbb N $.



      2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      shpindler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      To do it I need to show that all limit points of E are inside C[0, 1]. How can it be showed?
      One option is to show that addition of E is an open set.
      The second is to build some sequence which has a limit in E, I think.
      But how can it be done correctly?



      The first steps of my solution using the second option, so we need to prove that E contains all its limit points:



      1) Using the theorem: $f_0(x)$ - a limit point of the set E $subset$ C[0, 1] $Rightarrow$ $Leftarrow$ $exists${$f_n$} $subset$ E: $f_n to f_0, n to infty, f_n neq f_0$ $forall n in mathbb N $.



      2) Now we need to show that $f_0 in E$. And here I've stopped.







      functional-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      shpindler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




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      Check out our Code of Conduct.









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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 11 hours ago





















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      asked Dec 26 at 3:31









      shpindler

      42




      42




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      New contributor





      shpindler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      shpindler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.




      put on hold as off-topic by Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, John Douma, Paul Frost Dec 26 at 23:33


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, Paul Frost

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




      put on hold as off-topic by Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, John Douma, Paul Frost Dec 26 at 23:33


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, Eevee Trainer, Chinnapparaj R, Paul Frost

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          1 Answer
          1






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          oldest

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          1














          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 at 12:29










          • Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 12:34










          • @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 15:25












          • Yes @shpindler, you are right
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 17:05












          • @Hermione, thanks!
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 17:24


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1














          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 at 12:29










          • Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 12:34










          • @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 15:25












          • Yes @shpindler, you are right
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 17:05












          • @Hermione, thanks!
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 17:24
















          1














          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 at 12:29










          • Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 12:34










          • @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 15:25












          • Yes @shpindler, you are right
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 17:05












          • @Hermione, thanks!
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 17:24














          1












          1








          1






          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?






          share|cite|improve this answer














          You have a sequence $(f_n)_n$ of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $f_n(0) =0$ and $f_n(1)=0$. You know that $f_n to f_0$, where $f_0 in C([0,1])$ and the symbol $to$ means convergence in supermum norm.



          You have to prove that $f_0 (0) =f_0(1) =0$. This follows from the fact that $f_n to f_0$. Can you explain why?







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 26 at 12:33

























          answered Dec 26 at 12:26









          Hermione

          18119




          18119












          • I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 at 12:29










          • Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 12:34










          • @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 15:25












          • Yes @shpindler, you are right
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 17:05












          • @Hermione, thanks!
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 17:24


















          • I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
            – Jonas Lenz
            Dec 26 at 12:29










          • Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 12:34










          • @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 15:25












          • Yes @shpindler, you are right
            – Hermione
            Dec 26 at 17:05












          • @Hermione, thanks!
            – shpindler
            Dec 26 at 17:24
















          I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
          – Jonas Lenz
          Dec 26 at 12:29




          I would add for completeness that $to$ means converges in supremum norm.
          – Jonas Lenz
          Dec 26 at 12:29












          Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 at 12:34




          Your are right, now it is more clear. Thanks!
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 at 12:34












          @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 at 15:25






          @Hermione Am I right that since $max_{x in [0, 1]}|f_n(x) - f_0(x)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ if x = 0 then $|f_0(0)| < epsilon$ $forall epsilon > 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0(0) = 0$. Analogically for x = 1. Therefore $f_0(0) = f_0(1) = 0$ $Rightarrow$ $f_0 in E$. So E is a closed set.
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 at 15:25














          Yes @shpindler, you are right
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 at 17:05






          Yes @shpindler, you are right
          – Hermione
          Dec 26 at 17:05














          @Hermione, thanks!
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 at 17:24




          @Hermione, thanks!
          – shpindler
          Dec 26 at 17:24



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