Methods for proving a function outputs an infinite number of integers












4












$begingroup$


I have a function involving polynomials and the centre of the Binomial Triangle and I'd like to prove that the function produces a positive integer infinitely many times. I don't have any interest in what values the integers take so much, merely that they exist.



The function I have is:



$$f(n) = dfrac{15n^5+23n^4-20n^3-56n^2-48n-16}{n^3(n+1)(n+2)^4}begin{pmatrix}2n \ n end{pmatrix} + 4dfrac{3n^2+6n+4}{n^3 (n+2)^3}$$



The only method I have thought of is that I could try to prove that $sinleft(pi f(n)right)$ has an infinte number of roots. But that feels like kicking the can down the road as I don't know how to do that either!



Thank you for any and all help. Ben





Using partial fractions I get:



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} $$



From here I can find conditions for each fraction separately.



$frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} in mathbb{N} implies n text{ is prime > 3 (I found this on A000984)}$



$frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} in mathbb{N} implies n in mathbb{N} text{ (Always true)}$



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - color{Blue}{frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1}} $$





This leaves the final condition:



$frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} in mathbb{N} \ implies left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} equiv 2n+4pmod{n^4+8n^3+24n^2+32n+16}$



This seems to hold true when $n+2$ is a prime.





So if this function outputs an infinite number of integers, the twin-prime conjecture should be true.
If $n$ is the lower of a pair of twin primes, then $f(n)$ is an integer.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I would start by rewriting those rational functions using partial fractions, to isolate the divisibility condition you need for each separate factor in the denominator.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    I would expect the product of the fraction and the binomial coefficient to be an integer almost always, i.e. for all but finitely many values of $n$, whereas the other fraction can clearly only be an integer for finitely many $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Jan 1 at 22:38






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: The first term is never an integer if $n$ is an odd prime (there is nothing to cancel the $n^3$ in the denominator).
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    @EricWofsey Thanks Eric, I'll give that a go.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crossley
    Jan 1 at 22:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What makes you think that what you are trying to prove is true? Do you have any numerical evidence?
    $endgroup$
    – Somos
    Jan 2 at 0:30


















4












$begingroup$


I have a function involving polynomials and the centre of the Binomial Triangle and I'd like to prove that the function produces a positive integer infinitely many times. I don't have any interest in what values the integers take so much, merely that they exist.



The function I have is:



$$f(n) = dfrac{15n^5+23n^4-20n^3-56n^2-48n-16}{n^3(n+1)(n+2)^4}begin{pmatrix}2n \ n end{pmatrix} + 4dfrac{3n^2+6n+4}{n^3 (n+2)^3}$$



The only method I have thought of is that I could try to prove that $sinleft(pi f(n)right)$ has an infinte number of roots. But that feels like kicking the can down the road as I don't know how to do that either!



Thank you for any and all help. Ben





Using partial fractions I get:



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} $$



From here I can find conditions for each fraction separately.



$frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} in mathbb{N} implies n text{ is prime > 3 (I found this on A000984)}$



$frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} in mathbb{N} implies n in mathbb{N} text{ (Always true)}$



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - color{Blue}{frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1}} $$





This leaves the final condition:



$frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} in mathbb{N} \ implies left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} equiv 2n+4pmod{n^4+8n^3+24n^2+32n+16}$



This seems to hold true when $n+2$ is a prime.





So if this function outputs an infinite number of integers, the twin-prime conjecture should be true.
If $n$ is the lower of a pair of twin primes, then $f(n)$ is an integer.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I would start by rewriting those rational functions using partial fractions, to isolate the divisibility condition you need for each separate factor in the denominator.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    I would expect the product of the fraction and the binomial coefficient to be an integer almost always, i.e. for all but finitely many values of $n$, whereas the other fraction can clearly only be an integer for finitely many $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Jan 1 at 22:38






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: The first term is never an integer if $n$ is an odd prime (there is nothing to cancel the $n^3$ in the denominator).
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    @EricWofsey Thanks Eric, I'll give that a go.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crossley
    Jan 1 at 22:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What makes you think that what you are trying to prove is true? Do you have any numerical evidence?
    $endgroup$
    – Somos
    Jan 2 at 0:30
















4












4








4


2



$begingroup$


I have a function involving polynomials and the centre of the Binomial Triangle and I'd like to prove that the function produces a positive integer infinitely many times. I don't have any interest in what values the integers take so much, merely that they exist.



The function I have is:



$$f(n) = dfrac{15n^5+23n^4-20n^3-56n^2-48n-16}{n^3(n+1)(n+2)^4}begin{pmatrix}2n \ n end{pmatrix} + 4dfrac{3n^2+6n+4}{n^3 (n+2)^3}$$



The only method I have thought of is that I could try to prove that $sinleft(pi f(n)right)$ has an infinte number of roots. But that feels like kicking the can down the road as I don't know how to do that either!



Thank you for any and all help. Ben





Using partial fractions I get:



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} $$



From here I can find conditions for each fraction separately.



$frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} in mathbb{N} implies n text{ is prime > 3 (I found this on A000984)}$



$frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} in mathbb{N} implies n in mathbb{N} text{ (Always true)}$



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - color{Blue}{frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1}} $$





This leaves the final condition:



$frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} in mathbb{N} \ implies left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} equiv 2n+4pmod{n^4+8n^3+24n^2+32n+16}$



This seems to hold true when $n+2$ is a prime.





So if this function outputs an infinite number of integers, the twin-prime conjecture should be true.
If $n$ is the lower of a pair of twin primes, then $f(n)$ is an integer.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have a function involving polynomials and the centre of the Binomial Triangle and I'd like to prove that the function produces a positive integer infinitely many times. I don't have any interest in what values the integers take so much, merely that they exist.



The function I have is:



$$f(n) = dfrac{15n^5+23n^4-20n^3-56n^2-48n-16}{n^3(n+1)(n+2)^4}begin{pmatrix}2n \ n end{pmatrix} + 4dfrac{3n^2+6n+4}{n^3 (n+2)^3}$$



The only method I have thought of is that I could try to prove that $sinleft(pi f(n)right)$ has an infinte number of roots. But that feels like kicking the can down the road as I don't know how to do that either!



Thank you for any and all help. Ben





Using partial fractions I get:



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} $$



From here I can find conditions for each fraction separately.



$frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} in mathbb{N} implies n text{ is prime > 3 (I found this on A000984)}$



$frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1} in mathbb{N} implies n in mathbb{N} text{ (Always true)}$



$$f(n) = frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} - color{Blue}{frac{begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2}{n^3} - frac{4begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix}}{n+1}} $$





This leaves the final condition:



$frac{left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} - 2n-4}{(n+2)^4} in mathbb{N} \ implies left( 4n^3+28n^2+84n+76 right) begin{pmatrix} 2n \ n end{pmatrix} equiv 2n+4pmod{n^4+8n^3+24n^2+32n+16}$



This seems to hold true when $n+2$ is a prime.





So if this function outputs an infinite number of integers, the twin-prime conjecture should be true.
If $n$ is the lower of a pair of twin primes, then $f(n)$ is an integer.







number-theory factorial integers prime-twins






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited yesterday







Ben Crossley

















asked Jan 1 at 22:29









Ben CrossleyBen Crossley

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862318








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I would start by rewriting those rational functions using partial fractions, to isolate the divisibility condition you need for each separate factor in the denominator.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    I would expect the product of the fraction and the binomial coefficient to be an integer almost always, i.e. for all but finitely many values of $n$, whereas the other fraction can clearly only be an integer for finitely many $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Jan 1 at 22:38






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: The first term is never an integer if $n$ is an odd prime (there is nothing to cancel the $n^3$ in the denominator).
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    @EricWofsey Thanks Eric, I'll give that a go.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crossley
    Jan 1 at 22:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What makes you think that what you are trying to prove is true? Do you have any numerical evidence?
    $endgroup$
    – Somos
    Jan 2 at 0:30
















  • 3




    $begingroup$
    I would start by rewriting those rational functions using partial fractions, to isolate the divisibility condition you need for each separate factor in the denominator.
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:38










  • $begingroup$
    I would expect the product of the fraction and the binomial coefficient to be an integer almost always, i.e. for all but finitely many values of $n$, whereas the other fraction can clearly only be an integer for finitely many $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Jan 1 at 22:38






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Servaes: The first term is never an integer if $n$ is an odd prime (there is nothing to cancel the $n^3$ in the denominator).
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Wofsey
    Jan 1 at 22:40










  • $begingroup$
    @EricWofsey Thanks Eric, I'll give that a go.
    $endgroup$
    – Ben Crossley
    Jan 1 at 22:51






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What makes you think that what you are trying to prove is true? Do you have any numerical evidence?
    $endgroup$
    – Somos
    Jan 2 at 0:30










3




3




$begingroup$
I would start by rewriting those rational functions using partial fractions, to isolate the divisibility condition you need for each separate factor in the denominator.
$endgroup$
– Eric Wofsey
Jan 1 at 22:38




$begingroup$
I would start by rewriting those rational functions using partial fractions, to isolate the divisibility condition you need for each separate factor in the denominator.
$endgroup$
– Eric Wofsey
Jan 1 at 22:38












$begingroup$
I would expect the product of the fraction and the binomial coefficient to be an integer almost always, i.e. for all but finitely many values of $n$, whereas the other fraction can clearly only be an integer for finitely many $n$.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Jan 1 at 22:38




$begingroup$
I would expect the product of the fraction and the binomial coefficient to be an integer almost always, i.e. for all but finitely many values of $n$, whereas the other fraction can clearly only be an integer for finitely many $n$.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Jan 1 at 22:38




2




2




$begingroup$
@Servaes: The first term is never an integer if $n$ is an odd prime (there is nothing to cancel the $n^3$ in the denominator).
$endgroup$
– Eric Wofsey
Jan 1 at 22:40




$begingroup$
@Servaes: The first term is never an integer if $n$ is an odd prime (there is nothing to cancel the $n^3$ in the denominator).
$endgroup$
– Eric Wofsey
Jan 1 at 22:40












$begingroup$
@EricWofsey Thanks Eric, I'll give that a go.
$endgroup$
– Ben Crossley
Jan 1 at 22:51




$begingroup$
@EricWofsey Thanks Eric, I'll give that a go.
$endgroup$
– Ben Crossley
Jan 1 at 22:51




2




2




$begingroup$
What makes you think that what you are trying to prove is true? Do you have any numerical evidence?
$endgroup$
– Somos
Jan 2 at 0:30






$begingroup$
What makes you think that what you are trying to prove is true? Do you have any numerical evidence?
$endgroup$
– Somos
Jan 2 at 0:30












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Here is a proof that if both $n$ and $n+2$ are prime ($n>3$), then the output is integer:
clearly it suffices to show that if $n+2$ is prime then $$ left(4n^3+28n^2+84n+76right)binom{2n}{n} equiv 2(n+2) bmod{(n+2)^4}.$$
Let $p=n+2$ be prime, then this is equivalent to showing that:
$$tag1 2left(p^3+p^2+5p-3right)binom{2p-4}{p-2} equiv p bmod{p^4}.$$



Proof



Since $n>3$, $p>3$ and by Wolstenhome's theorem we have:
begin{align}
binom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv 1 bmod p^3\
pbinom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv p bmod p^4\
pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}binom{2p-4}{p-4}&equiv p bmod p^4.
end{align}



But $$ binom{2p-4}{p-2}=binom{2p-4}{p-4}frac{p-1}{p-3}frac{p}{p-2}.$$
Then
begin{align}
pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}frac{p-3}{p-1}frac{p-2}{p}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
end{align}

That is
begin{align}
frac{(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)}{(p-1)^2}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
end{align}



But by doing the power expansion of $frac{1}{(p-1)^2}$ , we see that
$$ frac{1}{(p-1)^2} equiv 1+2p+3p^2+4p^3 bmod p^4$$
and we are done since it is easy to see by expansion that $$(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)(1+2p+3p^2+4p^3) equiv 2(-3+5p+p^2+p^3) bmod p^4.$$



I does seem that for the OP function to bring an integer, the argument must be the smallest prime of a twin prime pair. But proving this seems very difficult. What about trying to disprove it by computer search of a counterexemple ?






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    $begingroup$

    Here is a proof that if both $n$ and $n+2$ are prime ($n>3$), then the output is integer:
    clearly it suffices to show that if $n+2$ is prime then $$ left(4n^3+28n^2+84n+76right)binom{2n}{n} equiv 2(n+2) bmod{(n+2)^4}.$$
    Let $p=n+2$ be prime, then this is equivalent to showing that:
    $$tag1 2left(p^3+p^2+5p-3right)binom{2p-4}{p-2} equiv p bmod{p^4}.$$



    Proof



    Since $n>3$, $p>3$ and by Wolstenhome's theorem we have:
    begin{align}
    binom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv 1 bmod p^3\
    pbinom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv p bmod p^4\
    pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}binom{2p-4}{p-4}&equiv p bmod p^4.
    end{align}



    But $$ binom{2p-4}{p-2}=binom{2p-4}{p-4}frac{p-1}{p-3}frac{p}{p-2}.$$
    Then
    begin{align}
    pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}frac{p-3}{p-1}frac{p-2}{p}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
    end{align}

    That is
    begin{align}
    frac{(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)}{(p-1)^2}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
    end{align}



    But by doing the power expansion of $frac{1}{(p-1)^2}$ , we see that
    $$ frac{1}{(p-1)^2} equiv 1+2p+3p^2+4p^3 bmod p^4$$
    and we are done since it is easy to see by expansion that $$(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)(1+2p+3p^2+4p^3) equiv 2(-3+5p+p^2+p^3) bmod p^4.$$



    I does seem that for the OP function to bring an integer, the argument must be the smallest prime of a twin prime pair. But proving this seems very difficult. What about trying to disprove it by computer search of a counterexemple ?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Here is a proof that if both $n$ and $n+2$ are prime ($n>3$), then the output is integer:
      clearly it suffices to show that if $n+2$ is prime then $$ left(4n^3+28n^2+84n+76right)binom{2n}{n} equiv 2(n+2) bmod{(n+2)^4}.$$
      Let $p=n+2$ be prime, then this is equivalent to showing that:
      $$tag1 2left(p^3+p^2+5p-3right)binom{2p-4}{p-2} equiv p bmod{p^4}.$$



      Proof



      Since $n>3$, $p>3$ and by Wolstenhome's theorem we have:
      begin{align}
      binom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv 1 bmod p^3\
      pbinom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv p bmod p^4\
      pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}binom{2p-4}{p-4}&equiv p bmod p^4.
      end{align}



      But $$ binom{2p-4}{p-2}=binom{2p-4}{p-4}frac{p-1}{p-3}frac{p}{p-2}.$$
      Then
      begin{align}
      pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}frac{p-3}{p-1}frac{p-2}{p}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
      end{align}

      That is
      begin{align}
      frac{(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)}{(p-1)^2}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
      end{align}



      But by doing the power expansion of $frac{1}{(p-1)^2}$ , we see that
      $$ frac{1}{(p-1)^2} equiv 1+2p+3p^2+4p^3 bmod p^4$$
      and we are done since it is easy to see by expansion that $$(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)(1+2p+3p^2+4p^3) equiv 2(-3+5p+p^2+p^3) bmod p^4.$$



      I does seem that for the OP function to bring an integer, the argument must be the smallest prime of a twin prime pair. But proving this seems very difficult. What about trying to disprove it by computer search of a counterexemple ?






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Here is a proof that if both $n$ and $n+2$ are prime ($n>3$), then the output is integer:
        clearly it suffices to show that if $n+2$ is prime then $$ left(4n^3+28n^2+84n+76right)binom{2n}{n} equiv 2(n+2) bmod{(n+2)^4}.$$
        Let $p=n+2$ be prime, then this is equivalent to showing that:
        $$tag1 2left(p^3+p^2+5p-3right)binom{2p-4}{p-2} equiv p bmod{p^4}.$$



        Proof



        Since $n>3$, $p>3$ and by Wolstenhome's theorem we have:
        begin{align}
        binom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv 1 bmod p^3\
        pbinom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv p bmod p^4\
        pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}binom{2p-4}{p-4}&equiv p bmod p^4.
        end{align}



        But $$ binom{2p-4}{p-2}=binom{2p-4}{p-4}frac{p-1}{p-3}frac{p}{p-2}.$$
        Then
        begin{align}
        pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}frac{p-3}{p-1}frac{p-2}{p}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
        end{align}

        That is
        begin{align}
        frac{(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)}{(p-1)^2}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
        end{align}



        But by doing the power expansion of $frac{1}{(p-1)^2}$ , we see that
        $$ frac{1}{(p-1)^2} equiv 1+2p+3p^2+4p^3 bmod p^4$$
        and we are done since it is easy to see by expansion that $$(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)(1+2p+3p^2+4p^3) equiv 2(-3+5p+p^2+p^3) bmod p^4.$$



        I does seem that for the OP function to bring an integer, the argument must be the smallest prime of a twin prime pair. But proving this seems very difficult. What about trying to disprove it by computer search of a counterexemple ?






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Here is a proof that if both $n$ and $n+2$ are prime ($n>3$), then the output is integer:
        clearly it suffices to show that if $n+2$ is prime then $$ left(4n^3+28n^2+84n+76right)binom{2n}{n} equiv 2(n+2) bmod{(n+2)^4}.$$
        Let $p=n+2$ be prime, then this is equivalent to showing that:
        $$tag1 2left(p^3+p^2+5p-3right)binom{2p-4}{p-2} equiv p bmod{p^4}.$$



        Proof



        Since $n>3$, $p>3$ and by Wolstenhome's theorem we have:
        begin{align}
        binom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv 1 bmod p^3\
        pbinom{2p-1}{p-1}&equiv p bmod p^4\
        pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}binom{2p-4}{p-4}&equiv p bmod p^4.
        end{align}



        But $$ binom{2p-4}{p-2}=binom{2p-4}{p-4}frac{p-1}{p-3}frac{p}{p-2}.$$
        Then
        begin{align}
        pfrac{2p-1}{p-1}frac{2p-2}{p-2}frac{2p-3}{p-3}frac{p-3}{p-1}frac{p-2}{p}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
        end{align}

        That is
        begin{align}
        frac{(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)}{(p-1)^2}binom{2p-4}{p-2}&equiv p bmod p^4
        end{align}



        But by doing the power expansion of $frac{1}{(p-1)^2}$ , we see that
        $$ frac{1}{(p-1)^2} equiv 1+2p+3p^2+4p^3 bmod p^4$$
        and we are done since it is easy to see by expansion that $$(2p-1)(2p-2)(2p-3)(1+2p+3p^2+4p^3) equiv 2(-3+5p+p^2+p^3) bmod p^4.$$



        I does seem that for the OP function to bring an integer, the argument must be the smallest prime of a twin prime pair. But proving this seems very difficult. What about trying to disprove it by computer search of a counterexemple ?







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 6 hours ago









        René GyRené Gy

        1,143613




        1,143613






























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