If $f:Uto V$ is holomorphic and $f'(z)neq 0$ for all $zin U$, then$f$ is locally bijective.












9












$begingroup$


I am trying to solve the following problem:




Let $f:Uto V$ be a holomorphic function such that $f'(z)neq 0$ for all $zin U$. Show that for all $z_0in U$, there exists a disc $D_varepsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f:D_varepsilon(z_0)to f(D_varepsilon(z_0))$ is bijective.




Atempt:



I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem, but I am stuck on a particular step. Let $z_0in U$. Since $f'(z_0)neq 0$, there is a disc $D_r(z_0)subseteq U$ such that
$$f(z)=f(z_0)+(z-z_0)h(z),quadforall zin D_r(z_0)$$
where $h$ is holomorphic on $D_r(z_0)$ and $h(z)neq 0$ for all $zin D_r(z_0)$.



Let $0<varepsilon<r$ to be defined later and fix $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$. To show that $f$ is injective in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$ is to show that the function $f(z)-f(w)$ has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But
$$F(z):=(z-z_0)h(z)$$
has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$, so we might want to apply Rouche's Theorem with $F$ and
$$G(z):=f(z)-f(w)-(z-z_0)h(z)=f(z_0)-f(w)=-(w-z_0)h(w)$$
to conclude that $F$ and $F+G$ have the same number of zeros and hence $f$ is injective. But that means that we need to find $0<varepsilon<r$ such that $|G(z)|<|F(z)|$ on $partial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. That is,
$$|w-z_0||h(w)|<|z-z_0||h(z)|$$
for all $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$.



Can we find such $varepsilon>0$?



It seems intuitive since if we expand $h$ in a power series at $z_0$, $h(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n(z-z_0)^n$, then
$$|w-z_0||h(w)| = |w-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|w-z_0|^n < |z-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|z-z_0|^n.$$
for $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But this is of course not a proof.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    9












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to solve the following problem:




    Let $f:Uto V$ be a holomorphic function such that $f'(z)neq 0$ for all $zin U$. Show that for all $z_0in U$, there exists a disc $D_varepsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f:D_varepsilon(z_0)to f(D_varepsilon(z_0))$ is bijective.




    Atempt:



    I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem, but I am stuck on a particular step. Let $z_0in U$. Since $f'(z_0)neq 0$, there is a disc $D_r(z_0)subseteq U$ such that
    $$f(z)=f(z_0)+(z-z_0)h(z),quadforall zin D_r(z_0)$$
    where $h$ is holomorphic on $D_r(z_0)$ and $h(z)neq 0$ for all $zin D_r(z_0)$.



    Let $0<varepsilon<r$ to be defined later and fix $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$. To show that $f$ is injective in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$ is to show that the function $f(z)-f(w)$ has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But
    $$F(z):=(z-z_0)h(z)$$
    has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$, so we might want to apply Rouche's Theorem with $F$ and
    $$G(z):=f(z)-f(w)-(z-z_0)h(z)=f(z_0)-f(w)=-(w-z_0)h(w)$$
    to conclude that $F$ and $F+G$ have the same number of zeros and hence $f$ is injective. But that means that we need to find $0<varepsilon<r$ such that $|G(z)|<|F(z)|$ on $partial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. That is,
    $$|w-z_0||h(w)|<|z-z_0||h(z)|$$
    for all $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$.



    Can we find such $varepsilon>0$?



    It seems intuitive since if we expand $h$ in a power series at $z_0$, $h(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n(z-z_0)^n$, then
    $$|w-z_0||h(w)| = |w-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|w-z_0|^n < |z-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|z-z_0|^n.$$
    for $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But this is of course not a proof.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      9












      9








      9


      2



      $begingroup$


      I am trying to solve the following problem:




      Let $f:Uto V$ be a holomorphic function such that $f'(z)neq 0$ for all $zin U$. Show that for all $z_0in U$, there exists a disc $D_varepsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f:D_varepsilon(z_0)to f(D_varepsilon(z_0))$ is bijective.




      Atempt:



      I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem, but I am stuck on a particular step. Let $z_0in U$. Since $f'(z_0)neq 0$, there is a disc $D_r(z_0)subseteq U$ such that
      $$f(z)=f(z_0)+(z-z_0)h(z),quadforall zin D_r(z_0)$$
      where $h$ is holomorphic on $D_r(z_0)$ and $h(z)neq 0$ for all $zin D_r(z_0)$.



      Let $0<varepsilon<r$ to be defined later and fix $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$. To show that $f$ is injective in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$ is to show that the function $f(z)-f(w)$ has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But
      $$F(z):=(z-z_0)h(z)$$
      has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$, so we might want to apply Rouche's Theorem with $F$ and
      $$G(z):=f(z)-f(w)-(z-z_0)h(z)=f(z_0)-f(w)=-(w-z_0)h(w)$$
      to conclude that $F$ and $F+G$ have the same number of zeros and hence $f$ is injective. But that means that we need to find $0<varepsilon<r$ such that $|G(z)|<|F(z)|$ on $partial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. That is,
      $$|w-z_0||h(w)|<|z-z_0||h(z)|$$
      for all $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$.



      Can we find such $varepsilon>0$?



      It seems intuitive since if we expand $h$ in a power series at $z_0$, $h(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n(z-z_0)^n$, then
      $$|w-z_0||h(w)| = |w-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|w-z_0|^n < |z-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|z-z_0|^n.$$
      for $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But this is of course not a proof.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am trying to solve the following problem:




      Let $f:Uto V$ be a holomorphic function such that $f'(z)neq 0$ for all $zin U$. Show that for all $z_0in U$, there exists a disc $D_varepsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f:D_varepsilon(z_0)to f(D_varepsilon(z_0))$ is bijective.




      Atempt:



      I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem, but I am stuck on a particular step. Let $z_0in U$. Since $f'(z_0)neq 0$, there is a disc $D_r(z_0)subseteq U$ such that
      $$f(z)=f(z_0)+(z-z_0)h(z),quadforall zin D_r(z_0)$$
      where $h$ is holomorphic on $D_r(z_0)$ and $h(z)neq 0$ for all $zin D_r(z_0)$.



      Let $0<varepsilon<r$ to be defined later and fix $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$. To show that $f$ is injective in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$ is to show that the function $f(z)-f(w)$ has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But
      $$F(z):=(z-z_0)h(z)$$
      has exactly one zero in $D_varepsilon(z_0)$, so we might want to apply Rouche's Theorem with $F$ and
      $$G(z):=f(z)-f(w)-(z-z_0)h(z)=f(z_0)-f(w)=-(w-z_0)h(w)$$
      to conclude that $F$ and $F+G$ have the same number of zeros and hence $f$ is injective. But that means that we need to find $0<varepsilon<r$ such that $|G(z)|<|F(z)|$ on $partial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. That is,
      $$|w-z_0||h(w)|<|z-z_0||h(z)|$$
      for all $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$.



      Can we find such $varepsilon>0$?



      It seems intuitive since if we expand $h$ in a power series at $z_0$, $h(z)=sum_{n=0}^infty a_n(z-z_0)^n$, then
      $$|w-z_0||h(w)| = |w-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|w-z_0|^n < |z-z_0|sum_{n=0}^infty a_n|z-z_0|^n.$$
      for $win D_varepsilon(z_0)$ and $zinpartial D_varepsilon(z_0)$. But this is of course not a proof.







      complex-analysis






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      edited Nov 29 '13 at 2:40







      Spenser

















      asked Nov 27 '13 at 3:43









      SpenserSpenser

      14.1k33378




      14.1k33378






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          You can use tke inverse fuction theorem, look here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function_theorem






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            In fact this question does not need Rouché's Theorem because we know the nonzero derivative.



            We view $mathbb C$ as $mathbb R^2$. Then the Jacobian matrix of $f$ at $z$ is:
            $$begin{bmatrix}a & -b\b & aend{bmatrix},$$ where $f'(z)=a+bi$.



            Note that this is the matrix of multiplication by $a+bi$ under standard basis.



            The determinant is just the norm square of $f'(z)$, which is nonzero by assumption. Hence the inverse function theorem can be applied.



            One remark is that Rouché is extremely useful when we do not know the derivative is nonzero. For example, in the proof of open mapping theorem and the fact that injective holomorphic function has nonzero derivative.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              If for each $epsilon>0$, there exists $y_epsilon neq x_epsilon$ in $D_epsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f(x_epsilon)=f(y_epsilon)$, then we'll have two same-function-valued sequences which are convergent to $z_0$. Can we improve this idea to find a contradiction with $f'(z_0)neq0$ ?
              $endgroup$
              – Fardad Pouran
              May 21 '14 at 10:09





















            0












            $begingroup$


            I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem ...




            Here is a possible approach:



            If $f(z_0) = w_0$ and $f'(z_0) ne 0$ then for sufficiently small
            $r > 0$:




            • $f'(z) ne 0$ for $|z-z_0| le r$, and

            • $f(z) ne w_0$ for $0 < |z-z_0| le r$.


            Then $m = min { |f(z) - w_0| : |z - z_0| = r }$ is positive,
            and for $|w-w_0| < m$ and $|z - z_0| = r$
            $$
            |(f(z) - w) - (f(z) - w_0)| = |w- w_0| < m le |f(z) - w_0| , .
            $$
            Now Rouché's theorem
            implies that $f(z) - w$ and $f(z) - w_0$ have the same number of
            zeros in $|z-z_0| < r$.



            It follows that $f$ assumes every value $w$ with $|w-w_0| < m$ exactly
            once in $|z-z_0| < r$, and therefore is injective in a neighborhood
            of $z_0$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
              3






              active

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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              1












              $begingroup$

              You can use tke inverse fuction theorem, look here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function_theorem






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                You can use tke inverse fuction theorem, look here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function_theorem






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  You can use tke inverse fuction theorem, look here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function_theorem






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  You can use tke inverse fuction theorem, look here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function_theorem







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 27 '13 at 11:56







                  user110661






























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      In fact this question does not need Rouché's Theorem because we know the nonzero derivative.



                      We view $mathbb C$ as $mathbb R^2$. Then the Jacobian matrix of $f$ at $z$ is:
                      $$begin{bmatrix}a & -b\b & aend{bmatrix},$$ where $f'(z)=a+bi$.



                      Note that this is the matrix of multiplication by $a+bi$ under standard basis.



                      The determinant is just the norm square of $f'(z)$, which is nonzero by assumption. Hence the inverse function theorem can be applied.



                      One remark is that Rouché is extremely useful when we do not know the derivative is nonzero. For example, in the proof of open mapping theorem and the fact that injective holomorphic function has nonzero derivative.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        If for each $epsilon>0$, there exists $y_epsilon neq x_epsilon$ in $D_epsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f(x_epsilon)=f(y_epsilon)$, then we'll have two same-function-valued sequences which are convergent to $z_0$. Can we improve this idea to find a contradiction with $f'(z_0)neq0$ ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Fardad Pouran
                        May 21 '14 at 10:09


















                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      In fact this question does not need Rouché's Theorem because we know the nonzero derivative.



                      We view $mathbb C$ as $mathbb R^2$. Then the Jacobian matrix of $f$ at $z$ is:
                      $$begin{bmatrix}a & -b\b & aend{bmatrix},$$ where $f'(z)=a+bi$.



                      Note that this is the matrix of multiplication by $a+bi$ under standard basis.



                      The determinant is just the norm square of $f'(z)$, which is nonzero by assumption. Hence the inverse function theorem can be applied.



                      One remark is that Rouché is extremely useful when we do not know the derivative is nonzero. For example, in the proof of open mapping theorem and the fact that injective holomorphic function has nonzero derivative.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        If for each $epsilon>0$, there exists $y_epsilon neq x_epsilon$ in $D_epsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f(x_epsilon)=f(y_epsilon)$, then we'll have two same-function-valued sequences which are convergent to $z_0$. Can we improve this idea to find a contradiction with $f'(z_0)neq0$ ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Fardad Pouran
                        May 21 '14 at 10:09
















                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      In fact this question does not need Rouché's Theorem because we know the nonzero derivative.



                      We view $mathbb C$ as $mathbb R^2$. Then the Jacobian matrix of $f$ at $z$ is:
                      $$begin{bmatrix}a & -b\b & aend{bmatrix},$$ where $f'(z)=a+bi$.



                      Note that this is the matrix of multiplication by $a+bi$ under standard basis.



                      The determinant is just the norm square of $f'(z)$, which is nonzero by assumption. Hence the inverse function theorem can be applied.



                      One remark is that Rouché is extremely useful when we do not know the derivative is nonzero. For example, in the proof of open mapping theorem and the fact that injective holomorphic function has nonzero derivative.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      In fact this question does not need Rouché's Theorem because we know the nonzero derivative.



                      We view $mathbb C$ as $mathbb R^2$. Then the Jacobian matrix of $f$ at $z$ is:
                      $$begin{bmatrix}a & -b\b & aend{bmatrix},$$ where $f'(z)=a+bi$.



                      Note that this is the matrix of multiplication by $a+bi$ under standard basis.



                      The determinant is just the norm square of $f'(z)$, which is nonzero by assumption. Hence the inverse function theorem can be applied.



                      One remark is that Rouché is extremely useful when we do not know the derivative is nonzero. For example, in the proof of open mapping theorem and the fact that injective holomorphic function has nonzero derivative.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Dec 7 '13 at 14:27









                      Y.H.Y.H.

                      503212




                      503212












                      • $begingroup$
                        If for each $epsilon>0$, there exists $y_epsilon neq x_epsilon$ in $D_epsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f(x_epsilon)=f(y_epsilon)$, then we'll have two same-function-valued sequences which are convergent to $z_0$. Can we improve this idea to find a contradiction with $f'(z_0)neq0$ ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Fardad Pouran
                        May 21 '14 at 10:09




















                      • $begingroup$
                        If for each $epsilon>0$, there exists $y_epsilon neq x_epsilon$ in $D_epsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f(x_epsilon)=f(y_epsilon)$, then we'll have two same-function-valued sequences which are convergent to $z_0$. Can we improve this idea to find a contradiction with $f'(z_0)neq0$ ?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Fardad Pouran
                        May 21 '14 at 10:09


















                      $begingroup$
                      If for each $epsilon>0$, there exists $y_epsilon neq x_epsilon$ in $D_epsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f(x_epsilon)=f(y_epsilon)$, then we'll have two same-function-valued sequences which are convergent to $z_0$. Can we improve this idea to find a contradiction with $f'(z_0)neq0$ ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Fardad Pouran
                      May 21 '14 at 10:09






                      $begingroup$
                      If for each $epsilon>0$, there exists $y_epsilon neq x_epsilon$ in $D_epsilon(z_0)subseteq U$ such that $f(x_epsilon)=f(y_epsilon)$, then we'll have two same-function-valued sequences which are convergent to $z_0$. Can we improve this idea to find a contradiction with $f'(z_0)neq0$ ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Fardad Pouran
                      May 21 '14 at 10:09













                      0












                      $begingroup$


                      I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem ...




                      Here is a possible approach:



                      If $f(z_0) = w_0$ and $f'(z_0) ne 0$ then for sufficiently small
                      $r > 0$:




                      • $f'(z) ne 0$ for $|z-z_0| le r$, and

                      • $f(z) ne w_0$ for $0 < |z-z_0| le r$.


                      Then $m = min { |f(z) - w_0| : |z - z_0| = r }$ is positive,
                      and for $|w-w_0| < m$ and $|z - z_0| = r$
                      $$
                      |(f(z) - w) - (f(z) - w_0)| = |w- w_0| < m le |f(z) - w_0| , .
                      $$
                      Now Rouché's theorem
                      implies that $f(z) - w$ and $f(z) - w_0$ have the same number of
                      zeros in $|z-z_0| < r$.



                      It follows that $f$ assumes every value $w$ with $|w-w_0| < m$ exactly
                      once in $|z-z_0| < r$, and therefore is injective in a neighborhood
                      of $z_0$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$


                        I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem ...




                        Here is a possible approach:



                        If $f(z_0) = w_0$ and $f'(z_0) ne 0$ then for sufficiently small
                        $r > 0$:




                        • $f'(z) ne 0$ for $|z-z_0| le r$, and

                        • $f(z) ne w_0$ for $0 < |z-z_0| le r$.


                        Then $m = min { |f(z) - w_0| : |z - z_0| = r }$ is positive,
                        and for $|w-w_0| < m$ and $|z - z_0| = r$
                        $$
                        |(f(z) - w) - (f(z) - w_0)| = |w- w_0| < m le |f(z) - w_0| , .
                        $$
                        Now Rouché's theorem
                        implies that $f(z) - w$ and $f(z) - w_0$ have the same number of
                        zeros in $|z-z_0| < r$.



                        It follows that $f$ assumes every value $w$ with $|w-w_0| < m$ exactly
                        once in $|z-z_0| < r$, and therefore is injective in a neighborhood
                        of $z_0$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$


                          I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem ...




                          Here is a possible approach:



                          If $f(z_0) = w_0$ and $f'(z_0) ne 0$ then for sufficiently small
                          $r > 0$:




                          • $f'(z) ne 0$ for $|z-z_0| le r$, and

                          • $f(z) ne w_0$ for $0 < |z-z_0| le r$.


                          Then $m = min { |f(z) - w_0| : |z - z_0| = r }$ is positive,
                          and for $|w-w_0| < m$ and $|z - z_0| = r$
                          $$
                          |(f(z) - w) - (f(z) - w_0)| = |w- w_0| < m le |f(z) - w_0| , .
                          $$
                          Now Rouché's theorem
                          implies that $f(z) - w$ and $f(z) - w_0$ have the same number of
                          zeros in $|z-z_0| < r$.



                          It follows that $f$ assumes every value $w$ with $|w-w_0| < m$ exactly
                          once in $|z-z_0| < r$, and therefore is injective in a neighborhood
                          of $z_0$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$




                          I am trying to use Rouche's Theorem ...




                          Here is a possible approach:



                          If $f(z_0) = w_0$ and $f'(z_0) ne 0$ then for sufficiently small
                          $r > 0$:




                          • $f'(z) ne 0$ for $|z-z_0| le r$, and

                          • $f(z) ne w_0$ for $0 < |z-z_0| le r$.


                          Then $m = min { |f(z) - w_0| : |z - z_0| = r }$ is positive,
                          and for $|w-w_0| < m$ and $|z - z_0| = r$
                          $$
                          |(f(z) - w) - (f(z) - w_0)| = |w- w_0| < m le |f(z) - w_0| , .
                          $$
                          Now Rouché's theorem
                          implies that $f(z) - w$ and $f(z) - w_0$ have the same number of
                          zeros in $|z-z_0| < r$.



                          It follows that $f$ assumes every value $w$ with $|w-w_0| < m$ exactly
                          once in $|z-z_0| < r$, and therefore is injective in a neighborhood
                          of $z_0$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












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                          answered Jul 1 '18 at 21:35









                          Martin RMartin R

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