Show that a Banach space $E$ is reflexive $iff$ for all closed subspace $F$ of $E$ we have $F^{perp perp} =...












0












$begingroup$


Problem: Let $E$ be a normed space over $mathbb{C}$.




  1. Show that we are able to embed $E$ into the second dual space (bidual) $E''$ of $E$ by a linear isometry i.e we can consider $E$ as a subspace of $E''$.

  2. For each subset $A$ of $E$, let $A^{perp} = {f in E' : f|_A = 0}$. Show that a Banach space $E$ is reflexive $iff$ for all closed subspace $F$ of $E$ we have $F^{perp perp} = J(F)$ in which $J$ is canonical embedding $E$ into $E'$.


My attempt:




  1. Let $E$ be a normed space. For each $x in E$, let $(Jx)(u) = u(x)$ for all $u in E'$.


We show that $J: E rightarrow E''$ is a linear isometry. Clearly, $Jx$ is a linear form on $E'$. Since $(Jx)(u) = |u(x)| le ||u||$ $||x|| $, $Jx$ is continuous on $E'$and $||Jx|| le ||x||$. Therefore, $Jx in E''$. It is routine to show that $J$ is a linear map from $E$ into $E''$. Take any $x in E$. There is $v in E'$ such that $||v|| = 1$ and $v(x) = ||x||$. Hence
$$||Jx|| = sup{|(Jx)(u)|:||u|| le 1}$$
$$= sup{|u(x)|: u in E', ||u|| le 1} ge v(x) = ||x||.$$
Therefore $J$ is a linear isometry.
Anybody can help me to solve question number $2$? Thank all!










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Problem: Let $E$ be a normed space over $mathbb{C}$.




    1. Show that we are able to embed $E$ into the second dual space (bidual) $E''$ of $E$ by a linear isometry i.e we can consider $E$ as a subspace of $E''$.

    2. For each subset $A$ of $E$, let $A^{perp} = {f in E' : f|_A = 0}$. Show that a Banach space $E$ is reflexive $iff$ for all closed subspace $F$ of $E$ we have $F^{perp perp} = J(F)$ in which $J$ is canonical embedding $E$ into $E'$.


    My attempt:




    1. Let $E$ be a normed space. For each $x in E$, let $(Jx)(u) = u(x)$ for all $u in E'$.


    We show that $J: E rightarrow E''$ is a linear isometry. Clearly, $Jx$ is a linear form on $E'$. Since $(Jx)(u) = |u(x)| le ||u||$ $||x|| $, $Jx$ is continuous on $E'$and $||Jx|| le ||x||$. Therefore, $Jx in E''$. It is routine to show that $J$ is a linear map from $E$ into $E''$. Take any $x in E$. There is $v in E'$ such that $||v|| = 1$ and $v(x) = ||x||$. Hence
    $$||Jx|| = sup{|(Jx)(u)|:||u|| le 1}$$
    $$= sup{|u(x)|: u in E', ||u|| le 1} ge v(x) = ||x||.$$
    Therefore $J$ is a linear isometry.
    Anybody can help me to solve question number $2$? Thank all!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Problem: Let $E$ be a normed space over $mathbb{C}$.




      1. Show that we are able to embed $E$ into the second dual space (bidual) $E''$ of $E$ by a linear isometry i.e we can consider $E$ as a subspace of $E''$.

      2. For each subset $A$ of $E$, let $A^{perp} = {f in E' : f|_A = 0}$. Show that a Banach space $E$ is reflexive $iff$ for all closed subspace $F$ of $E$ we have $F^{perp perp} = J(F)$ in which $J$ is canonical embedding $E$ into $E'$.


      My attempt:




      1. Let $E$ be a normed space. For each $x in E$, let $(Jx)(u) = u(x)$ for all $u in E'$.


      We show that $J: E rightarrow E''$ is a linear isometry. Clearly, $Jx$ is a linear form on $E'$. Since $(Jx)(u) = |u(x)| le ||u||$ $||x|| $, $Jx$ is continuous on $E'$and $||Jx|| le ||x||$. Therefore, $Jx in E''$. It is routine to show that $J$ is a linear map from $E$ into $E''$. Take any $x in E$. There is $v in E'$ such that $||v|| = 1$ and $v(x) = ||x||$. Hence
      $$||Jx|| = sup{|(Jx)(u)|:||u|| le 1}$$
      $$= sup{|u(x)|: u in E', ||u|| le 1} ge v(x) = ||x||.$$
      Therefore $J$ is a linear isometry.
      Anybody can help me to solve question number $2$? Thank all!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Problem: Let $E$ be a normed space over $mathbb{C}$.




      1. Show that we are able to embed $E$ into the second dual space (bidual) $E''$ of $E$ by a linear isometry i.e we can consider $E$ as a subspace of $E''$.

      2. For each subset $A$ of $E$, let $A^{perp} = {f in E' : f|_A = 0}$. Show that a Banach space $E$ is reflexive $iff$ for all closed subspace $F$ of $E$ we have $F^{perp perp} = J(F)$ in which $J$ is canonical embedding $E$ into $E'$.


      My attempt:




      1. Let $E$ be a normed space. For each $x in E$, let $(Jx)(u) = u(x)$ for all $u in E'$.


      We show that $J: E rightarrow E''$ is a linear isometry. Clearly, $Jx$ is a linear form on $E'$. Since $(Jx)(u) = |u(x)| le ||u||$ $||x|| $, $Jx$ is continuous on $E'$and $||Jx|| le ||x||$. Therefore, $Jx in E''$. It is routine to show that $J$ is a linear map from $E$ into $E''$. Take any $x in E$. There is $v in E'$ such that $||v|| = 1$ and $v(x) = ||x||$. Hence
      $$||Jx|| = sup{|(Jx)(u)|:||u|| le 1}$$
      $$= sup{|u(x)|: u in E', ||u|| le 1} ge v(x) = ||x||.$$
      Therefore $J$ is a linear isometry.
      Anybody can help me to solve question number $2$? Thank all!







      functional-analysis proof-verification hilbert-spaces






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      edited Jan 16 at 10:24







      Minh

















      asked Jan 15 at 18:31









      MinhMinh

      31119




      31119






















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          $begingroup$

          The implication $Leftarrow$ direction is very simple. Since $E^{perpperp}=E^{primeprime}$, it follows from $E^{perpperp}=J(E)$ that $J$ is surjective.



          For the converse implication let $F$ be a closed subspace of $E$. If $phiin E^perp$, then $0=phi(x)=Jx(phi)$ for all $xin F$. Thus $J(F)subset F^{perpperp}$ (this inclusion does not require reflexivity or closedness). On the other hand let $psiin F^{perpperp}$. By assumption there exists $yin E$ such that $Jy=psi$. Then $0=psi(u)=u(y)$ for all $uin F^perp$. It follows from the Hahn-Banach theorem that $yin F$ (here one needs the closedness of $F$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









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          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. This implies from the definition.
            $endgroup$
            – Minh
            Jan 16 at 11:48












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          $begingroup$

          The implication $Leftarrow$ direction is very simple. Since $E^{perpperp}=E^{primeprime}$, it follows from $E^{perpperp}=J(E)$ that $J$ is surjective.



          For the converse implication let $F$ be a closed subspace of $E$. If $phiin E^perp$, then $0=phi(x)=Jx(phi)$ for all $xin F$. Thus $J(F)subset F^{perpperp}$ (this inclusion does not require reflexivity or closedness). On the other hand let $psiin F^{perpperp}$. By assumption there exists $yin E$ such that $Jy=psi$. Then $0=psi(u)=u(y)$ for all $uin F^perp$. It follows from the Hahn-Banach theorem that $yin F$ (here one needs the closedness of $F$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. This implies from the definition.
            $endgroup$
            – Minh
            Jan 16 at 11:48
















          1












          $begingroup$

          The implication $Leftarrow$ direction is very simple. Since $E^{perpperp}=E^{primeprime}$, it follows from $E^{perpperp}=J(E)$ that $J$ is surjective.



          For the converse implication let $F$ be a closed subspace of $E$. If $phiin E^perp$, then $0=phi(x)=Jx(phi)$ for all $xin F$. Thus $J(F)subset F^{perpperp}$ (this inclusion does not require reflexivity or closedness). On the other hand let $psiin F^{perpperp}$. By assumption there exists $yin E$ such that $Jy=psi$. Then $0=psi(u)=u(y)$ for all $uin F^perp$. It follows from the Hahn-Banach theorem that $yin F$ (here one needs the closedness of $F$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. This implies from the definition.
            $endgroup$
            – Minh
            Jan 16 at 11:48














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          The implication $Leftarrow$ direction is very simple. Since $E^{perpperp}=E^{primeprime}$, it follows from $E^{perpperp}=J(E)$ that $J$ is surjective.



          For the converse implication let $F$ be a closed subspace of $E$. If $phiin E^perp$, then $0=phi(x)=Jx(phi)$ for all $xin F$. Thus $J(F)subset F^{perpperp}$ (this inclusion does not require reflexivity or closedness). On the other hand let $psiin F^{perpperp}$. By assumption there exists $yin E$ such that $Jy=psi$. Then $0=psi(u)=u(y)$ for all $uin F^perp$. It follows from the Hahn-Banach theorem that $yin F$ (here one needs the closedness of $F$).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The implication $Leftarrow$ direction is very simple. Since $E^{perpperp}=E^{primeprime}$, it follows from $E^{perpperp}=J(E)$ that $J$ is surjective.



          For the converse implication let $F$ be a closed subspace of $E$. If $phiin E^perp$, then $0=phi(x)=Jx(phi)$ for all $xin F$. Thus $J(F)subset F^{perpperp}$ (this inclusion does not require reflexivity or closedness). On the other hand let $psiin F^{perpperp}$. By assumption there exists $yin E$ such that $Jy=psi$. Then $0=psi(u)=u(y)$ for all $uin F^perp$. It follows from the Hahn-Banach theorem that $yin F$ (here one needs the closedness of $F$).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 16 at 10:38









          MaoWaoMaoWao

          3,958618




          3,958618












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. This implies from the definition.
            $endgroup$
            – Minh
            Jan 16 at 11:48


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. This implies from the definition.
            $endgroup$
            – Minh
            Jan 16 at 11:48
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks. This implies from the definition.
          $endgroup$
          – Minh
          Jan 16 at 11:48




          $begingroup$
          Thanks. This implies from the definition.
          $endgroup$
          – Minh
          Jan 16 at 11:48


















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