Problem of isomorphism and counting on quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/$












4












$begingroup$



Let $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ and $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ in ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$.



1) Are quotient rings $$mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/< f(x) > and ~~mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$$ isomorphic?



2) How many of the invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)> $ are equal to their inverse?




Attempt. 1) I believe not. Since $f(x)=x(x-1)ldots (x-100)$ in $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$,
having $101^{100}$ elements, in not an integral domain. On the other hand, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$ has the same number of elements, i.e. $101^{100}$, but I am having difficulty to prove that it is not an integral domain ($g(x)$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but I am not sure if this helps).



2) The number of invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$ is:
begin{eqnarray}&&101^{101}-big(100cdot 101+100cdot 101^2+ldots+100cdot 101^{100}big)-1nonumber\
&=&101^{101}-100cdot 101cdot big(1+101+ldots+101^{99}big)-1nonumber\
&=&101^{101}-100cdot 101 cdot frac{101^{100}-1}{101-1}-1nonumber\
&=&101^{101}-101 cdot (101^{100}-1)-1=101-1=100.nonumber
end{eqnarray}

In order for an invertible element $$h(x)+<f(x)>=a_{100}x^{100}+ldots+a_0+<f(x)>$$ of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$
to be equal to its inverse, we must have:
$$h(x)+<f(x)>=(h(x)+<f(x)>)^{-1} iff$$
$$f(x)~|~(h(x))^2-1=big(h(x)-1big)big(h(x)+1big)iff$$
$$forall kin mathbb{Z}_{101}:~x-k~|~h(x)-1 ~~or ~~h(x)+1.$$
But how would this give the necessary conditions on the coefficients of $h(x)$, to determine the exact number of the desired elements?



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    4












    $begingroup$



    Let $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ and $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ in ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$.



    1) Are quotient rings $$mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/< f(x) > and ~~mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$$ isomorphic?



    2) How many of the invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)> $ are equal to their inverse?




    Attempt. 1) I believe not. Since $f(x)=x(x-1)ldots (x-100)$ in $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$,
    having $101^{100}$ elements, in not an integral domain. On the other hand, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$ has the same number of elements, i.e. $101^{100}$, but I am having difficulty to prove that it is not an integral domain ($g(x)$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but I am not sure if this helps).



    2) The number of invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$ is:
    begin{eqnarray}&&101^{101}-big(100cdot 101+100cdot 101^2+ldots+100cdot 101^{100}big)-1nonumber\
    &=&101^{101}-100cdot 101cdot big(1+101+ldots+101^{99}big)-1nonumber\
    &=&101^{101}-100cdot 101 cdot frac{101^{100}-1}{101-1}-1nonumber\
    &=&101^{101}-101 cdot (101^{100}-1)-1=101-1=100.nonumber
    end{eqnarray}

    In order for an invertible element $$h(x)+<f(x)>=a_{100}x^{100}+ldots+a_0+<f(x)>$$ of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$
    to be equal to its inverse, we must have:
    $$h(x)+<f(x)>=(h(x)+<f(x)>)^{-1} iff$$
    $$f(x)~|~(h(x))^2-1=big(h(x)-1big)big(h(x)+1big)iff$$
    $$forall kin mathbb{Z}_{101}:~x-k~|~h(x)-1 ~~or ~~h(x)+1.$$
    But how would this give the necessary conditions on the coefficients of $h(x)$, to determine the exact number of the desired elements?



    Thanks in advance.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      4












      4








      4





      $begingroup$



      Let $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ and $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ in ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$.



      1) Are quotient rings $$mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/< f(x) > and ~~mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$$ isomorphic?



      2) How many of the invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)> $ are equal to their inverse?




      Attempt. 1) I believe not. Since $f(x)=x(x-1)ldots (x-100)$ in $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$,
      having $101^{100}$ elements, in not an integral domain. On the other hand, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$ has the same number of elements, i.e. $101^{100}$, but I am having difficulty to prove that it is not an integral domain ($g(x)$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but I am not sure if this helps).



      2) The number of invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$ is:
      begin{eqnarray}&&101^{101}-big(100cdot 101+100cdot 101^2+ldots+100cdot 101^{100}big)-1nonumber\
      &=&101^{101}-100cdot 101cdot big(1+101+ldots+101^{99}big)-1nonumber\
      &=&101^{101}-100cdot 101 cdot frac{101^{100}-1}{101-1}-1nonumber\
      &=&101^{101}-101 cdot (101^{100}-1)-1=101-1=100.nonumber
      end{eqnarray}

      In order for an invertible element $$h(x)+<f(x)>=a_{100}x^{100}+ldots+a_0+<f(x)>$$ of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$
      to be equal to its inverse, we must have:
      $$h(x)+<f(x)>=(h(x)+<f(x)>)^{-1} iff$$
      $$f(x)~|~(h(x))^2-1=big(h(x)-1big)big(h(x)+1big)iff$$
      $$forall kin mathbb{Z}_{101}:~x-k~|~h(x)-1 ~~or ~~h(x)+1.$$
      But how would this give the necessary conditions on the coefficients of $h(x)$, to determine the exact number of the desired elements?



      Thanks in advance.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Let $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ and $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ in ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$.



      1) Are quotient rings $$mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/< f(x) > and ~~mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$$ isomorphic?



      2) How many of the invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)> $ are equal to their inverse?




      Attempt. 1) I believe not. Since $f(x)=x(x-1)ldots (x-100)$ in $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]$, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$,
      having $101^{100}$ elements, in not an integral domain. On the other hand, quotient ring $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/<g(x)>$ has the same number of elements, i.e. $101^{100}$, but I am having difficulty to prove that it is not an integral domain ($g(x)$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but I am not sure if this helps).



      2) The number of invertible elements of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$ is:
      begin{eqnarray}&&101^{101}-big(100cdot 101+100cdot 101^2+ldots+100cdot 101^{100}big)-1nonumber\
      &=&101^{101}-100cdot 101cdot big(1+101+ldots+101^{99}big)-1nonumber\
      &=&101^{101}-100cdot 101 cdot frac{101^{100}-1}{101-1}-1nonumber\
      &=&101^{101}-101 cdot (101^{100}-1)-1=101-1=100.nonumber
      end{eqnarray}

      In order for an invertible element $$h(x)+<f(x)>=a_{100}x^{100}+ldots+a_0+<f(x)>$$ of $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/ <f(x)>$
      to be equal to its inverse, we must have:
      $$h(x)+<f(x)>=(h(x)+<f(x)>)^{-1} iff$$
      $$f(x)~|~(h(x))^2-1=big(h(x)-1big)big(h(x)+1big)iff$$
      $$forall kin mathbb{Z}_{101}:~x-k~|~h(x)-1 ~~or ~~h(x)+1.$$
      But how would this give the necessary conditions on the coefficients of $h(x)$, to determine the exact number of the desired elements?



      Thanks in advance.







      abstract-algebra polynomials ring-theory irreducible-polynomials






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 10 at 23:34









      Nikolaos SkoutNikolaos Skout

      2,353619




      2,353619






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Note that $101$ is prime, so that $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ is a field; neither polynomial has repeated root (in its splitting field) because the derivative polynomial is in both cases $-1$.



          If we have a monic polynomial $h(x)=h_1(x)h_2(x)dots h_k(x)$ over a field $F$, with $h_1,h_2,dots,h_n$ monic irreducible and pairwise distinct, the Chinese remainder theorem tells us that
          $$
          F[x]/langle h(x)ranglecong
          F[x]/langle h_1(x)rangletimes
          F[x]/langle h_2(x)rangletimesdotstimes
          F[x]/langle h_k(x)rangle
          tag{*}
          $$

          where each factor is a field extension of $F$.



          By Fermat's little theorem, $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ factors over $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ as a product of linear factors, so
          $$
          mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle f(x)ranglecong(mathbb{Z}_{101})^{101}tag{**}
          $$

          Since $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but can nonetheless be factored as $g=g_1g_2dots g_k$, with $g_1,dots,g_k$ monic irreducible and $k<101$, we have that $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a product of $k$ fields. Since $kne101$, we can conclude that the two rings are not isomorphic (for instance, show that the number of elements equal to their inverse is not the same).



          For part (b), the sought number is $2^{101}$ as follows from the isomorphism (**).



          Note. As it has been remarked in comments, $g(x)$ is actually irreducible, so $k=1$ and $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a field. However this is not needed for the present exercise. What's needed is that the number of irreducible factors of $g$ is less than $101$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. A question: let $F_i$ be the fields $mathbb{Z}_{100}[x]/<g_i(x)>$. Why are equalities $|F_1|ldots|F_k|=100^{101}$ or $|A_1|ldots|A_k|=2^{101}$ imposible? (where $A_i:={rin F_i:r^2=1}$)
            $endgroup$
            – Nikolaos Skout
            Jan 11 at 0:39






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Several proofs for the fact that $g(x)$ is irreducible over $Bbb{Z}_{101}$ are given here. It recurs frequently :-) Upvote for part (b).
            $endgroup$
            – Jyrki Lahtonen
            Jan 11 at 6:49












          • $begingroup$
            Actually, $k>1$ is not stated, and not used here..
            $endgroup$
            – Berci
            Jan 11 at 7:00










          • $begingroup$
            @NikolaosSkout If $R$ is the product of $k$ fields (of characteristic $ne2$), the number of elements equal to their inverse is $2^k$, because in each factor there are two such elements. The fields here all have characteristic $101$.
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            @JyrkiLahtonen Do you need to show that $g$ is irreducible in order to conclude the two rings are not isomorphic? Part (b) is an obvious hint on how to solve part (a).
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:25











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          Note that $101$ is prime, so that $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ is a field; neither polynomial has repeated root (in its splitting field) because the derivative polynomial is in both cases $-1$.



          If we have a monic polynomial $h(x)=h_1(x)h_2(x)dots h_k(x)$ over a field $F$, with $h_1,h_2,dots,h_n$ monic irreducible and pairwise distinct, the Chinese remainder theorem tells us that
          $$
          F[x]/langle h(x)ranglecong
          F[x]/langle h_1(x)rangletimes
          F[x]/langle h_2(x)rangletimesdotstimes
          F[x]/langle h_k(x)rangle
          tag{*}
          $$

          where each factor is a field extension of $F$.



          By Fermat's little theorem, $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ factors over $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ as a product of linear factors, so
          $$
          mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle f(x)ranglecong(mathbb{Z}_{101})^{101}tag{**}
          $$

          Since $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but can nonetheless be factored as $g=g_1g_2dots g_k$, with $g_1,dots,g_k$ monic irreducible and $k<101$, we have that $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a product of $k$ fields. Since $kne101$, we can conclude that the two rings are not isomorphic (for instance, show that the number of elements equal to their inverse is not the same).



          For part (b), the sought number is $2^{101}$ as follows from the isomorphism (**).



          Note. As it has been remarked in comments, $g(x)$ is actually irreducible, so $k=1$ and $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a field. However this is not needed for the present exercise. What's needed is that the number of irreducible factors of $g$ is less than $101$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. A question: let $F_i$ be the fields $mathbb{Z}_{100}[x]/<g_i(x)>$. Why are equalities $|F_1|ldots|F_k|=100^{101}$ or $|A_1|ldots|A_k|=2^{101}$ imposible? (where $A_i:={rin F_i:r^2=1}$)
            $endgroup$
            – Nikolaos Skout
            Jan 11 at 0:39






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Several proofs for the fact that $g(x)$ is irreducible over $Bbb{Z}_{101}$ are given here. It recurs frequently :-) Upvote for part (b).
            $endgroup$
            – Jyrki Lahtonen
            Jan 11 at 6:49












          • $begingroup$
            Actually, $k>1$ is not stated, and not used here..
            $endgroup$
            – Berci
            Jan 11 at 7:00










          • $begingroup$
            @NikolaosSkout If $R$ is the product of $k$ fields (of characteristic $ne2$), the number of elements equal to their inverse is $2^k$, because in each factor there are two such elements. The fields here all have characteristic $101$.
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            @JyrkiLahtonen Do you need to show that $g$ is irreducible in order to conclude the two rings are not isomorphic? Part (b) is an obvious hint on how to solve part (a).
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:25
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Note that $101$ is prime, so that $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ is a field; neither polynomial has repeated root (in its splitting field) because the derivative polynomial is in both cases $-1$.



          If we have a monic polynomial $h(x)=h_1(x)h_2(x)dots h_k(x)$ over a field $F$, with $h_1,h_2,dots,h_n$ monic irreducible and pairwise distinct, the Chinese remainder theorem tells us that
          $$
          F[x]/langle h(x)ranglecong
          F[x]/langle h_1(x)rangletimes
          F[x]/langle h_2(x)rangletimesdotstimes
          F[x]/langle h_k(x)rangle
          tag{*}
          $$

          where each factor is a field extension of $F$.



          By Fermat's little theorem, $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ factors over $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ as a product of linear factors, so
          $$
          mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle f(x)ranglecong(mathbb{Z}_{101})^{101}tag{**}
          $$

          Since $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but can nonetheless be factored as $g=g_1g_2dots g_k$, with $g_1,dots,g_k$ monic irreducible and $k<101$, we have that $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a product of $k$ fields. Since $kne101$, we can conclude that the two rings are not isomorphic (for instance, show that the number of elements equal to their inverse is not the same).



          For part (b), the sought number is $2^{101}$ as follows from the isomorphism (**).



          Note. As it has been remarked in comments, $g(x)$ is actually irreducible, so $k=1$ and $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a field. However this is not needed for the present exercise. What's needed is that the number of irreducible factors of $g$ is less than $101$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. A question: let $F_i$ be the fields $mathbb{Z}_{100}[x]/<g_i(x)>$. Why are equalities $|F_1|ldots|F_k|=100^{101}$ or $|A_1|ldots|A_k|=2^{101}$ imposible? (where $A_i:={rin F_i:r^2=1}$)
            $endgroup$
            – Nikolaos Skout
            Jan 11 at 0:39






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Several proofs for the fact that $g(x)$ is irreducible over $Bbb{Z}_{101}$ are given here. It recurs frequently :-) Upvote for part (b).
            $endgroup$
            – Jyrki Lahtonen
            Jan 11 at 6:49












          • $begingroup$
            Actually, $k>1$ is not stated, and not used here..
            $endgroup$
            – Berci
            Jan 11 at 7:00










          • $begingroup$
            @NikolaosSkout If $R$ is the product of $k$ fields (of characteristic $ne2$), the number of elements equal to their inverse is $2^k$, because in each factor there are two such elements. The fields here all have characteristic $101$.
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            @JyrkiLahtonen Do you need to show that $g$ is irreducible in order to conclude the two rings are not isomorphic? Part (b) is an obvious hint on how to solve part (a).
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:25














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Note that $101$ is prime, so that $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ is a field; neither polynomial has repeated root (in its splitting field) because the derivative polynomial is in both cases $-1$.



          If we have a monic polynomial $h(x)=h_1(x)h_2(x)dots h_k(x)$ over a field $F$, with $h_1,h_2,dots,h_n$ monic irreducible and pairwise distinct, the Chinese remainder theorem tells us that
          $$
          F[x]/langle h(x)ranglecong
          F[x]/langle h_1(x)rangletimes
          F[x]/langle h_2(x)rangletimesdotstimes
          F[x]/langle h_k(x)rangle
          tag{*}
          $$

          where each factor is a field extension of $F$.



          By Fermat's little theorem, $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ factors over $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ as a product of linear factors, so
          $$
          mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle f(x)ranglecong(mathbb{Z}_{101})^{101}tag{**}
          $$

          Since $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but can nonetheless be factored as $g=g_1g_2dots g_k$, with $g_1,dots,g_k$ monic irreducible and $k<101$, we have that $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a product of $k$ fields. Since $kne101$, we can conclude that the two rings are not isomorphic (for instance, show that the number of elements equal to their inverse is not the same).



          For part (b), the sought number is $2^{101}$ as follows from the isomorphism (**).



          Note. As it has been remarked in comments, $g(x)$ is actually irreducible, so $k=1$ and $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a field. However this is not needed for the present exercise. What's needed is that the number of irreducible factors of $g$ is less than $101$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Note that $101$ is prime, so that $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ is a field; neither polynomial has repeated root (in its splitting field) because the derivative polynomial is in both cases $-1$.



          If we have a monic polynomial $h(x)=h_1(x)h_2(x)dots h_k(x)$ over a field $F$, with $h_1,h_2,dots,h_n$ monic irreducible and pairwise distinct, the Chinese remainder theorem tells us that
          $$
          F[x]/langle h(x)ranglecong
          F[x]/langle h_1(x)rangletimes
          F[x]/langle h_2(x)rangletimesdotstimes
          F[x]/langle h_k(x)rangle
          tag{*}
          $$

          where each factor is a field extension of $F$.



          By Fermat's little theorem, $f(x)=x^{101}-x$ factors over $mathbb{Z}_{101}$ as a product of linear factors, so
          $$
          mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle f(x)ranglecong(mathbb{Z}_{101})^{101}tag{**}
          $$

          Since $g(x)=x^{101}-x+1$ has no roots in $mathbb{Z}_{101}$, but can nonetheless be factored as $g=g_1g_2dots g_k$, with $g_1,dots,g_k$ monic irreducible and $k<101$, we have that $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a product of $k$ fields. Since $kne101$, we can conclude that the two rings are not isomorphic (for instance, show that the number of elements equal to their inverse is not the same).



          For part (b), the sought number is $2^{101}$ as follows from the isomorphism (**).



          Note. As it has been remarked in comments, $g(x)$ is actually irreducible, so $k=1$ and $mathbb{Z}_{101}[x]/langle g(x)rangle$ is a field. However this is not needed for the present exercise. What's needed is that the number of irreducible factors of $g$ is less than $101$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 11 at 8:42

























          answered Jan 10 at 23:55









          egregegreg

          183k1486205




          183k1486205












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. A question: let $F_i$ be the fields $mathbb{Z}_{100}[x]/<g_i(x)>$. Why are equalities $|F_1|ldots|F_k|=100^{101}$ or $|A_1|ldots|A_k|=2^{101}$ imposible? (where $A_i:={rin F_i:r^2=1}$)
            $endgroup$
            – Nikolaos Skout
            Jan 11 at 0:39






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Several proofs for the fact that $g(x)$ is irreducible over $Bbb{Z}_{101}$ are given here. It recurs frequently :-) Upvote for part (b).
            $endgroup$
            – Jyrki Lahtonen
            Jan 11 at 6:49












          • $begingroup$
            Actually, $k>1$ is not stated, and not used here..
            $endgroup$
            – Berci
            Jan 11 at 7:00










          • $begingroup$
            @NikolaosSkout If $R$ is the product of $k$ fields (of characteristic $ne2$), the number of elements equal to their inverse is $2^k$, because in each factor there are two such elements. The fields here all have characteristic $101$.
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            @JyrkiLahtonen Do you need to show that $g$ is irreducible in order to conclude the two rings are not isomorphic? Part (b) is an obvious hint on how to solve part (a).
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:25


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. A question: let $F_i$ be the fields $mathbb{Z}_{100}[x]/<g_i(x)>$. Why are equalities $|F_1|ldots|F_k|=100^{101}$ or $|A_1|ldots|A_k|=2^{101}$ imposible? (where $A_i:={rin F_i:r^2=1}$)
            $endgroup$
            – Nikolaos Skout
            Jan 11 at 0:39






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Several proofs for the fact that $g(x)$ is irreducible over $Bbb{Z}_{101}$ are given here. It recurs frequently :-) Upvote for part (b).
            $endgroup$
            – Jyrki Lahtonen
            Jan 11 at 6:49












          • $begingroup$
            Actually, $k>1$ is not stated, and not used here..
            $endgroup$
            – Berci
            Jan 11 at 7:00










          • $begingroup$
            @NikolaosSkout If $R$ is the product of $k$ fields (of characteristic $ne2$), the number of elements equal to their inverse is $2^k$, because in each factor there are two such elements. The fields here all have characteristic $101$.
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:23










          • $begingroup$
            @JyrkiLahtonen Do you need to show that $g$ is irreducible in order to conclude the two rings are not isomorphic? Part (b) is an obvious hint on how to solve part (a).
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Jan 11 at 8:25
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you. A question: let $F_i$ be the fields $mathbb{Z}_{100}[x]/<g_i(x)>$. Why are equalities $|F_1|ldots|F_k|=100^{101}$ or $|A_1|ldots|A_k|=2^{101}$ imposible? (where $A_i:={rin F_i:r^2=1}$)
          $endgroup$
          – Nikolaos Skout
          Jan 11 at 0:39




          $begingroup$
          Thank you. A question: let $F_i$ be the fields $mathbb{Z}_{100}[x]/<g_i(x)>$. Why are equalities $|F_1|ldots|F_k|=100^{101}$ or $|A_1|ldots|A_k|=2^{101}$ imposible? (where $A_i:={rin F_i:r^2=1}$)
          $endgroup$
          – Nikolaos Skout
          Jan 11 at 0:39




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Several proofs for the fact that $g(x)$ is irreducible over $Bbb{Z}_{101}$ are given here. It recurs frequently :-) Upvote for part (b).
          $endgroup$
          – Jyrki Lahtonen
          Jan 11 at 6:49






          $begingroup$
          Several proofs for the fact that $g(x)$ is irreducible over $Bbb{Z}_{101}$ are given here. It recurs frequently :-) Upvote for part (b).
          $endgroup$
          – Jyrki Lahtonen
          Jan 11 at 6:49














          $begingroup$
          Actually, $k>1$ is not stated, and not used here..
          $endgroup$
          – Berci
          Jan 11 at 7:00




          $begingroup$
          Actually, $k>1$ is not stated, and not used here..
          $endgroup$
          – Berci
          Jan 11 at 7:00












          $begingroup$
          @NikolaosSkout If $R$ is the product of $k$ fields (of characteristic $ne2$), the number of elements equal to their inverse is $2^k$, because in each factor there are two such elements. The fields here all have characteristic $101$.
          $endgroup$
          – egreg
          Jan 11 at 8:23




          $begingroup$
          @NikolaosSkout If $R$ is the product of $k$ fields (of characteristic $ne2$), the number of elements equal to their inverse is $2^k$, because in each factor there are two such elements. The fields here all have characteristic $101$.
          $endgroup$
          – egreg
          Jan 11 at 8:23












          $begingroup$
          @JyrkiLahtonen Do you need to show that $g$ is irreducible in order to conclude the two rings are not isomorphic? Part (b) is an obvious hint on how to solve part (a).
          $endgroup$
          – egreg
          Jan 11 at 8:25




          $begingroup$
          @JyrkiLahtonen Do you need to show that $g$ is irreducible in order to conclude the two rings are not isomorphic? Part (b) is an obvious hint on how to solve part (a).
          $endgroup$
          – egreg
          Jan 11 at 8:25


















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