Verifying an inequality if $A subset Bbb{C}$ is compact?












1












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Suppose $A,B$ are subsets of the complex plane $Bbb{C}$ with $A$ compact




Then there exists a point $a in A$ such that $forall x in A, y in B$ there exists $b in B$ such that $|a-b| leq |x-y|$.




I am thinking whether the above statement is true? $A$ is compact in $Bbb{C}$ means that $A$ is closed and bounded, trying to think $Bbb{C}$ similar to an $Bbb{R}^2$ plane, but I cannot think what the inequality means? any motivation or visualization of the inequality and is that even true?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think it is true if you replace $B$ by its closure, just in the last part of the statement "... there exists $b in bar{B}$ such that ..."
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 6:31


















1












$begingroup$


Suppose $A,B$ are subsets of the complex plane $Bbb{C}$ with $A$ compact




Then there exists a point $a in A$ such that $forall x in A, y in B$ there exists $b in B$ such that $|a-b| leq |x-y|$.




I am thinking whether the above statement is true? $A$ is compact in $Bbb{C}$ means that $A$ is closed and bounded, trying to think $Bbb{C}$ similar to an $Bbb{R}^2$ plane, but I cannot think what the inequality means? any motivation or visualization of the inequality and is that even true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think it is true if you replace $B$ by its closure, just in the last part of the statement "... there exists $b in bar{B}$ such that ..."
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 6:31
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


Suppose $A,B$ are subsets of the complex plane $Bbb{C}$ with $A$ compact




Then there exists a point $a in A$ such that $forall x in A, y in B$ there exists $b in B$ such that $|a-b| leq |x-y|$.




I am thinking whether the above statement is true? $A$ is compact in $Bbb{C}$ means that $A$ is closed and bounded, trying to think $Bbb{C}$ similar to an $Bbb{R}^2$ plane, but I cannot think what the inequality means? any motivation or visualization of the inequality and is that even true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Suppose $A,B$ are subsets of the complex plane $Bbb{C}$ with $A$ compact




Then there exists a point $a in A$ such that $forall x in A, y in B$ there exists $b in B$ such that $|a-b| leq |x-y|$.




I am thinking whether the above statement is true? $A$ is compact in $Bbb{C}$ means that $A$ is closed and bounded, trying to think $Bbb{C}$ similar to an $Bbb{R}^2$ plane, but I cannot think what the inequality means? any motivation or visualization of the inequality and is that even true?







real-analysis compactness quantifiers






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asked Jan 1 at 6:05









BAYMAXBAYMAX

2,88621123




2,88621123








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think it is true if you replace $B$ by its closure, just in the last part of the statement "... there exists $b in bar{B}$ such that ..."
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 6:31
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think it is true if you replace $B$ by its closure, just in the last part of the statement "... there exists $b in bar{B}$ such that ..."
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 6:31










1




1




$begingroup$
I think it is true if you replace $B$ by its closure, just in the last part of the statement "... there exists $b in bar{B}$ such that ..."
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 1 at 6:31






$begingroup$
I think it is true if you replace $B$ by its closure, just in the last part of the statement "... there exists $b in bar{B}$ such that ..."
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 1 at 6:31












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let us define $d(x,B) = inf_{zin B} d(x,z)$. From the triangle inequality $d(x,z)leq d(y,z)+d(x,y)$, by taking infimum over $zin B$, we know that $xmapsto d(x,B)$ is Lipschitz continuous.



Now, assume to the contrary that for every $ain A$, there exists $xin A$ and $yin B$ such that for all $bin B$
$$
d(a,b)>d(x,y) tag{*}
$$
holds. Choose $a in text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$. Then $(*)$ implies that
$$
min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y).
$$
By $(*)$, there exists $x'in A$, $y'in B$ such that
$$
min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y)>d(x',y')ge d(x',B).
$$
This contradict $x'in A$. Hence we argue by contradiction that the statement is true.






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  • $begingroup$
    I was thinking what is $text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Jan 2 at 0:33










  • $begingroup$
    It is the set of minimizers of $Ani pmapsto d(p,B)$. That is, $text{argmin}_{pin A}d(p,B) ={ pin A;|; d(p,B)le d(q,B)text{ for all }qin A}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Jan 2 at 5:52



















0












$begingroup$

The map $Arightarrow mathbb{R}^+, xmapsto d(x,B)$ is continuous on the compact set $A$.



Here $d(x,B)=inf{|x-y|, , yin B}$.
Then there exists $ain A$ which minimizes this map $i.e.$ $d(a,B)=d(A,B)$.



Then for every $xin A$ and $yin B$ we have $|x-y|geq d(A,B) = d(a,B)=|a-b|$ for some $bin bar{B}$.






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$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What if there is no $yin B$ that minimizes the distance to $x$? Referring to your definition of $d(x,B)$, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Jan 1 at 6:54










  • $begingroup$
    $bin bar{B}$.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:00










  • $begingroup$
    you corrected it to infimum (from minimum). $binoverline B$ played no role in my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Jan 1 at 7:05












  • $begingroup$
    It just a matter of notation. Because we learned to use min and inf equivalently. But seems this creates confusion.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:08










  • $begingroup$
    Because I was assuming y must be B then I wouldnt take the closure at the end.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:11



















0












$begingroup$

The statement is true.



Let $M = inf{|a-b| : a in A, b in B}$. First of all, suppose that the infimum is achieved, i.e. there exist $a in A$ and $b in B$ such that $|a-b| = M$. Then it is clear that for every $x in A, y in B$, we have $|a-b| leq |x-y|$, so the condition is satisfied.



Conversely, suppose the infimum isn't satisfied. Then there exist$^1$ sequences $(a_n)_n subseteq A$ and $(b_n)_n subseteq B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$. Now, since $A$ is compact, it is sequentially compact, so we can extract a subsequence $(a_{n_k})_k$ of $(a_n)_n$ which converges to some $a in A$. We claim this $a$ satisfies the condition.



Let $x in A$, $y in B$. We know that the infimum $M$ is not achieved, so we have $|x-y|>M$. Let $epsilon = |x-y|-M>0$. By definition of convergence$^2$, we can pick $K,N in mathbb{N}$ such that:



begin{align*}
&forall k geq K, |a_{n_k} - a| < epsilon/2 \
&forall n geq N, |a_n - b_n| < epsilon/2 + M
end{align*}



Then we can pick some $k$ such that $k geq K$ and $n_k geq N$, and we get:



begin{align*}
|a - b_{n_k}| leq |a - a_{n_k}| + |a_{n_k} - b_{n_k}| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2 + M = epsilon + M = |x-y|
end{align*}



And thus choosing $b_{n_k}$ satisfies the desired condition. $blacksquare$



$^1$Assuming $A$ and $B$ are non-empty. To see this, note that by definition of the infimum, for every $n in mathbb{N}$, there must exist $a_n in A$ and $b_n in B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| < M + 1/n$. And, naturally, $|a_n - b_n| geq M$.



$^2$In the case of $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$, we can remove one set of absolute values since we know $|a_n - b_n| > M$ for every $n$.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    active

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    active

    oldest

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    1












    $begingroup$

    Let us define $d(x,B) = inf_{zin B} d(x,z)$. From the triangle inequality $d(x,z)leq d(y,z)+d(x,y)$, by taking infimum over $zin B$, we know that $xmapsto d(x,B)$ is Lipschitz continuous.



    Now, assume to the contrary that for every $ain A$, there exists $xin A$ and $yin B$ such that for all $bin B$
    $$
    d(a,b)>d(x,y) tag{*}
    $$
    holds. Choose $a in text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$. Then $(*)$ implies that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y).
    $$
    By $(*)$, there exists $x'in A$, $y'in B$ such that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y)>d(x',y')ge d(x',B).
    $$
    This contradict $x'in A$. Hence we argue by contradiction that the statement is true.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I was thinking what is $text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$ ?
      $endgroup$
      – BAYMAX
      Jan 2 at 0:33










    • $begingroup$
      It is the set of minimizers of $Ani pmapsto d(p,B)$. That is, $text{argmin}_{pin A}d(p,B) ={ pin A;|; d(p,B)le d(q,B)text{ for all }qin A}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      Jan 2 at 5:52
















    1












    $begingroup$

    Let us define $d(x,B) = inf_{zin B} d(x,z)$. From the triangle inequality $d(x,z)leq d(y,z)+d(x,y)$, by taking infimum over $zin B$, we know that $xmapsto d(x,B)$ is Lipschitz continuous.



    Now, assume to the contrary that for every $ain A$, there exists $xin A$ and $yin B$ such that for all $bin B$
    $$
    d(a,b)>d(x,y) tag{*}
    $$
    holds. Choose $a in text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$. Then $(*)$ implies that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y).
    $$
    By $(*)$, there exists $x'in A$, $y'in B$ such that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y)>d(x',y')ge d(x',B).
    $$
    This contradict $x'in A$. Hence we argue by contradiction that the statement is true.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I was thinking what is $text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$ ?
      $endgroup$
      – BAYMAX
      Jan 2 at 0:33










    • $begingroup$
      It is the set of minimizers of $Ani pmapsto d(p,B)$. That is, $text{argmin}_{pin A}d(p,B) ={ pin A;|; d(p,B)le d(q,B)text{ for all }qin A}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      Jan 2 at 5:52














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    Let us define $d(x,B) = inf_{zin B} d(x,z)$. From the triangle inequality $d(x,z)leq d(y,z)+d(x,y)$, by taking infimum over $zin B$, we know that $xmapsto d(x,B)$ is Lipschitz continuous.



    Now, assume to the contrary that for every $ain A$, there exists $xin A$ and $yin B$ such that for all $bin B$
    $$
    d(a,b)>d(x,y) tag{*}
    $$
    holds. Choose $a in text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$. Then $(*)$ implies that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y).
    $$
    By $(*)$, there exists $x'in A$, $y'in B$ such that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y)>d(x',y')ge d(x',B).
    $$
    This contradict $x'in A$. Hence we argue by contradiction that the statement is true.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Let us define $d(x,B) = inf_{zin B} d(x,z)$. From the triangle inequality $d(x,z)leq d(y,z)+d(x,y)$, by taking infimum over $zin B$, we know that $xmapsto d(x,B)$ is Lipschitz continuous.



    Now, assume to the contrary that for every $ain A$, there exists $xin A$ and $yin B$ such that for all $bin B$
    $$
    d(a,b)>d(x,y) tag{*}
    $$
    holds. Choose $a in text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$. Then $(*)$ implies that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y).
    $$
    By $(*)$, there exists $x'in A$, $y'in B$ such that
    $$
    min_{pin A} d(p,B) = d(x,y)>d(x',y')ge d(x',B).
    $$
    This contradict $x'in A$. Hence we argue by contradiction that the statement is true.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 1 at 7:08









    SongSong

    9,211627




    9,211627












    • $begingroup$
      I was thinking what is $text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$ ?
      $endgroup$
      – BAYMAX
      Jan 2 at 0:33










    • $begingroup$
      It is the set of minimizers of $Ani pmapsto d(p,B)$. That is, $text{argmin}_{pin A}d(p,B) ={ pin A;|; d(p,B)le d(q,B)text{ for all }qin A}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      Jan 2 at 5:52


















    • $begingroup$
      I was thinking what is $text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$ ?
      $endgroup$
      – BAYMAX
      Jan 2 at 0:33










    • $begingroup$
      It is the set of minimizers of $Ani pmapsto d(p,B)$. That is, $text{argmin}_{pin A}d(p,B) ={ pin A;|; d(p,B)le d(q,B)text{ for all }qin A}$.
      $endgroup$
      – Song
      Jan 2 at 5:52
















    $begingroup$
    I was thinking what is $text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Jan 2 at 0:33




    $begingroup$
    I was thinking what is $text{argmin}_{pin A} d(p,B)$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Jan 2 at 0:33












    $begingroup$
    It is the set of minimizers of $Ani pmapsto d(p,B)$. That is, $text{argmin}_{pin A}d(p,B) ={ pin A;|; d(p,B)le d(q,B)text{ for all }qin A}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Jan 2 at 5:52




    $begingroup$
    It is the set of minimizers of $Ani pmapsto d(p,B)$. That is, $text{argmin}_{pin A}d(p,B) ={ pin A;|; d(p,B)le d(q,B)text{ for all }qin A}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Jan 2 at 5:52











    0












    $begingroup$

    The map $Arightarrow mathbb{R}^+, xmapsto d(x,B)$ is continuous on the compact set $A$.



    Here $d(x,B)=inf{|x-y|, , yin B}$.
    Then there exists $ain A$ which minimizes this map $i.e.$ $d(a,B)=d(A,B)$.



    Then for every $xin A$ and $yin B$ we have $|x-y|geq d(A,B) = d(a,B)=|a-b|$ for some $bin bar{B}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      What if there is no $yin B$ that minimizes the distance to $x$? Referring to your definition of $d(x,B)$, of course.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 6:54










    • $begingroup$
      $bin bar{B}$.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:00










    • $begingroup$
      you corrected it to infimum (from minimum). $binoverline B$ played no role in my question.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 7:05












    • $begingroup$
      It just a matter of notation. Because we learned to use min and inf equivalently. But seems this creates confusion.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:08










    • $begingroup$
      Because I was assuming y must be B then I wouldnt take the closure at the end.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:11
















    0












    $begingroup$

    The map $Arightarrow mathbb{R}^+, xmapsto d(x,B)$ is continuous on the compact set $A$.



    Here $d(x,B)=inf{|x-y|, , yin B}$.
    Then there exists $ain A$ which minimizes this map $i.e.$ $d(a,B)=d(A,B)$.



    Then for every $xin A$ and $yin B$ we have $|x-y|geq d(A,B) = d(a,B)=|a-b|$ for some $bin bar{B}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      What if there is no $yin B$ that minimizes the distance to $x$? Referring to your definition of $d(x,B)$, of course.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 6:54










    • $begingroup$
      $bin bar{B}$.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:00










    • $begingroup$
      you corrected it to infimum (from minimum). $binoverline B$ played no role in my question.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 7:05












    • $begingroup$
      It just a matter of notation. Because we learned to use min and inf equivalently. But seems this creates confusion.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:08










    • $begingroup$
      Because I was assuming y must be B then I wouldnt take the closure at the end.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:11














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    The map $Arightarrow mathbb{R}^+, xmapsto d(x,B)$ is continuous on the compact set $A$.



    Here $d(x,B)=inf{|x-y|, , yin B}$.
    Then there exists $ain A$ which minimizes this map $i.e.$ $d(a,B)=d(A,B)$.



    Then for every $xin A$ and $yin B$ we have $|x-y|geq d(A,B) = d(a,B)=|a-b|$ for some $bin bar{B}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    The map $Arightarrow mathbb{R}^+, xmapsto d(x,B)$ is continuous on the compact set $A$.



    Here $d(x,B)=inf{|x-y|, , yin B}$.
    Then there exists $ain A$ which minimizes this map $i.e.$ $d(a,B)=d(A,B)$.



    Then for every $xin A$ and $yin B$ we have $|x-y|geq d(A,B) = d(a,B)=|a-b|$ for some $bin bar{B}$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 1 at 6:57

























    answered Jan 1 at 6:47









    moutheticsmouthetics

    50127




    50127








    • 2




      $begingroup$
      What if there is no $yin B$ that minimizes the distance to $x$? Referring to your definition of $d(x,B)$, of course.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 6:54










    • $begingroup$
      $bin bar{B}$.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:00










    • $begingroup$
      you corrected it to infimum (from minimum). $binoverline B$ played no role in my question.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 7:05












    • $begingroup$
      It just a matter of notation. Because we learned to use min and inf equivalently. But seems this creates confusion.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:08










    • $begingroup$
      Because I was assuming y must be B then I wouldnt take the closure at the end.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:11














    • 2




      $begingroup$
      What if there is no $yin B$ that minimizes the distance to $x$? Referring to your definition of $d(x,B)$, of course.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 6:54










    • $begingroup$
      $bin bar{B}$.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:00










    • $begingroup$
      you corrected it to infimum (from minimum). $binoverline B$ played no role in my question.
      $endgroup$
      – Clayton
      Jan 1 at 7:05












    • $begingroup$
      It just a matter of notation. Because we learned to use min and inf equivalently. But seems this creates confusion.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:08










    • $begingroup$
      Because I was assuming y must be B then I wouldnt take the closure at the end.
      $endgroup$
      – mouthetics
      Jan 1 at 7:11








    2




    2




    $begingroup$
    What if there is no $yin B$ that minimizes the distance to $x$? Referring to your definition of $d(x,B)$, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Jan 1 at 6:54




    $begingroup$
    What if there is no $yin B$ that minimizes the distance to $x$? Referring to your definition of $d(x,B)$, of course.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Jan 1 at 6:54












    $begingroup$
    $bin bar{B}$.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:00




    $begingroup$
    $bin bar{B}$.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:00












    $begingroup$
    you corrected it to infimum (from minimum). $binoverline B$ played no role in my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Jan 1 at 7:05






    $begingroup$
    you corrected it to infimum (from minimum). $binoverline B$ played no role in my question.
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Jan 1 at 7:05














    $begingroup$
    It just a matter of notation. Because we learned to use min and inf equivalently. But seems this creates confusion.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:08




    $begingroup$
    It just a matter of notation. Because we learned to use min and inf equivalently. But seems this creates confusion.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:08












    $begingroup$
    Because I was assuming y must be B then I wouldnt take the closure at the end.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:11




    $begingroup$
    Because I was assuming y must be B then I wouldnt take the closure at the end.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 1 at 7:11











    0












    $begingroup$

    The statement is true.



    Let $M = inf{|a-b| : a in A, b in B}$. First of all, suppose that the infimum is achieved, i.e. there exist $a in A$ and $b in B$ such that $|a-b| = M$. Then it is clear that for every $x in A, y in B$, we have $|a-b| leq |x-y|$, so the condition is satisfied.



    Conversely, suppose the infimum isn't satisfied. Then there exist$^1$ sequences $(a_n)_n subseteq A$ and $(b_n)_n subseteq B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$. Now, since $A$ is compact, it is sequentially compact, so we can extract a subsequence $(a_{n_k})_k$ of $(a_n)_n$ which converges to some $a in A$. We claim this $a$ satisfies the condition.



    Let $x in A$, $y in B$. We know that the infimum $M$ is not achieved, so we have $|x-y|>M$. Let $epsilon = |x-y|-M>0$. By definition of convergence$^2$, we can pick $K,N in mathbb{N}$ such that:



    begin{align*}
    &forall k geq K, |a_{n_k} - a| < epsilon/2 \
    &forall n geq N, |a_n - b_n| < epsilon/2 + M
    end{align*}



    Then we can pick some $k$ such that $k geq K$ and $n_k geq N$, and we get:



    begin{align*}
    |a - b_{n_k}| leq |a - a_{n_k}| + |a_{n_k} - b_{n_k}| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2 + M = epsilon + M = |x-y|
    end{align*}



    And thus choosing $b_{n_k}$ satisfies the desired condition. $blacksquare$



    $^1$Assuming $A$ and $B$ are non-empty. To see this, note that by definition of the infimum, for every $n in mathbb{N}$, there must exist $a_n in A$ and $b_n in B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| < M + 1/n$. And, naturally, $|a_n - b_n| geq M$.



    $^2$In the case of $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$, we can remove one set of absolute values since we know $|a_n - b_n| > M$ for every $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      The statement is true.



      Let $M = inf{|a-b| : a in A, b in B}$. First of all, suppose that the infimum is achieved, i.e. there exist $a in A$ and $b in B$ such that $|a-b| = M$. Then it is clear that for every $x in A, y in B$, we have $|a-b| leq |x-y|$, so the condition is satisfied.



      Conversely, suppose the infimum isn't satisfied. Then there exist$^1$ sequences $(a_n)_n subseteq A$ and $(b_n)_n subseteq B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$. Now, since $A$ is compact, it is sequentially compact, so we can extract a subsequence $(a_{n_k})_k$ of $(a_n)_n$ which converges to some $a in A$. We claim this $a$ satisfies the condition.



      Let $x in A$, $y in B$. We know that the infimum $M$ is not achieved, so we have $|x-y|>M$. Let $epsilon = |x-y|-M>0$. By definition of convergence$^2$, we can pick $K,N in mathbb{N}$ such that:



      begin{align*}
      &forall k geq K, |a_{n_k} - a| < epsilon/2 \
      &forall n geq N, |a_n - b_n| < epsilon/2 + M
      end{align*}



      Then we can pick some $k$ such that $k geq K$ and $n_k geq N$, and we get:



      begin{align*}
      |a - b_{n_k}| leq |a - a_{n_k}| + |a_{n_k} - b_{n_k}| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2 + M = epsilon + M = |x-y|
      end{align*}



      And thus choosing $b_{n_k}$ satisfies the desired condition. $blacksquare$



      $^1$Assuming $A$ and $B$ are non-empty. To see this, note that by definition of the infimum, for every $n in mathbb{N}$, there must exist $a_n in A$ and $b_n in B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| < M + 1/n$. And, naturally, $|a_n - b_n| geq M$.



      $^2$In the case of $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$, we can remove one set of absolute values since we know $|a_n - b_n| > M$ for every $n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        The statement is true.



        Let $M = inf{|a-b| : a in A, b in B}$. First of all, suppose that the infimum is achieved, i.e. there exist $a in A$ and $b in B$ such that $|a-b| = M$. Then it is clear that for every $x in A, y in B$, we have $|a-b| leq |x-y|$, so the condition is satisfied.



        Conversely, suppose the infimum isn't satisfied. Then there exist$^1$ sequences $(a_n)_n subseteq A$ and $(b_n)_n subseteq B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$. Now, since $A$ is compact, it is sequentially compact, so we can extract a subsequence $(a_{n_k})_k$ of $(a_n)_n$ which converges to some $a in A$. We claim this $a$ satisfies the condition.



        Let $x in A$, $y in B$. We know that the infimum $M$ is not achieved, so we have $|x-y|>M$. Let $epsilon = |x-y|-M>0$. By definition of convergence$^2$, we can pick $K,N in mathbb{N}$ such that:



        begin{align*}
        &forall k geq K, |a_{n_k} - a| < epsilon/2 \
        &forall n geq N, |a_n - b_n| < epsilon/2 + M
        end{align*}



        Then we can pick some $k$ such that $k geq K$ and $n_k geq N$, and we get:



        begin{align*}
        |a - b_{n_k}| leq |a - a_{n_k}| + |a_{n_k} - b_{n_k}| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2 + M = epsilon + M = |x-y|
        end{align*}



        And thus choosing $b_{n_k}$ satisfies the desired condition. $blacksquare$



        $^1$Assuming $A$ and $B$ are non-empty. To see this, note that by definition of the infimum, for every $n in mathbb{N}$, there must exist $a_n in A$ and $b_n in B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| < M + 1/n$. And, naturally, $|a_n - b_n| geq M$.



        $^2$In the case of $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$, we can remove one set of absolute values since we know $|a_n - b_n| > M$ for every $n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The statement is true.



        Let $M = inf{|a-b| : a in A, b in B}$. First of all, suppose that the infimum is achieved, i.e. there exist $a in A$ and $b in B$ such that $|a-b| = M$. Then it is clear that for every $x in A, y in B$, we have $|a-b| leq |x-y|$, so the condition is satisfied.



        Conversely, suppose the infimum isn't satisfied. Then there exist$^1$ sequences $(a_n)_n subseteq A$ and $(b_n)_n subseteq B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$. Now, since $A$ is compact, it is sequentially compact, so we can extract a subsequence $(a_{n_k})_k$ of $(a_n)_n$ which converges to some $a in A$. We claim this $a$ satisfies the condition.



        Let $x in A$, $y in B$. We know that the infimum $M$ is not achieved, so we have $|x-y|>M$. Let $epsilon = |x-y|-M>0$. By definition of convergence$^2$, we can pick $K,N in mathbb{N}$ such that:



        begin{align*}
        &forall k geq K, |a_{n_k} - a| < epsilon/2 \
        &forall n geq N, |a_n - b_n| < epsilon/2 + M
        end{align*}



        Then we can pick some $k$ such that $k geq K$ and $n_k geq N$, and we get:



        begin{align*}
        |a - b_{n_k}| leq |a - a_{n_k}| + |a_{n_k} - b_{n_k}| < epsilon/2 + epsilon/2 + M = epsilon + M = |x-y|
        end{align*}



        And thus choosing $b_{n_k}$ satisfies the desired condition. $blacksquare$



        $^1$Assuming $A$ and $B$ are non-empty. To see this, note that by definition of the infimum, for every $n in mathbb{N}$, there must exist $a_n in A$ and $b_n in B$ such that $|a_n - b_n| < M + 1/n$. And, naturally, $|a_n - b_n| geq M$.



        $^2$In the case of $|a_n - b_n| rightarrow M$, we can remove one set of absolute values since we know $|a_n - b_n| > M$ for every $n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 2 at 14:19

























        answered Jan 2 at 3:09









        SamboSambo

        2,1822532




        2,1822532






























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