Why every polynomial is separable over a field of char 0?












0














There is a definition:




Characteristic: the least common multiple (can be zero) of all orders of all elements in a field.




Then for a field with characteristic 0, pick elements,
$$ alpha_1, alpha_2, ..., alpha_n$$
such that the least common multiple of their orders is $q$.



Then the irreducible,
$$ f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + ... + alpha_n x^{nq} $$
has derivative,



$$ f'(x) = qalpha_1x^{q-1} + 2qalpha_2x^{2q-1} + ... + nqalpha_nx^{nq-1} = 0 $$



It follows that $gcd(f, f') = f$, and $f$ is inseparable.



Note that this can also work in field of characteristic $p$, if we choose such $q$ less than $p$.



So could anyone proof this is wrong, in the hope that there does not exist such a $q$?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Why would the additive orders of the coefficients of a polynomial be related to the degrees of the terms? There's a kind of disconnect in your introduction of $f(x)$ in that it came out of nowhere. You cannot assume that an arbitrary irreducible polynomial would only have terms of degrees that are multiples of $q$. In other words, exactly what are you asking?
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:16






  • 5




    Also, when the characteristic of a field (or an integral domain) is introduced, one of the first exercises is to prove that ALL the elements (with the exception of zero) have exactly the same order. So defining the characteristic as the least common multiple, while correct, feels a bit like a misdescription. It is kinda missing the main point, if you ask me :-)
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:18










  • @JyrkiLahtonen Sorry for the confusion, I think the two answers gets my idea.
    – Astrick Harren
    Dec 28 '18 at 4:52
















0














There is a definition:




Characteristic: the least common multiple (can be zero) of all orders of all elements in a field.




Then for a field with characteristic 0, pick elements,
$$ alpha_1, alpha_2, ..., alpha_n$$
such that the least common multiple of their orders is $q$.



Then the irreducible,
$$ f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + ... + alpha_n x^{nq} $$
has derivative,



$$ f'(x) = qalpha_1x^{q-1} + 2qalpha_2x^{2q-1} + ... + nqalpha_nx^{nq-1} = 0 $$



It follows that $gcd(f, f') = f$, and $f$ is inseparable.



Note that this can also work in field of characteristic $p$, if we choose such $q$ less than $p$.



So could anyone proof this is wrong, in the hope that there does not exist such a $q$?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Why would the additive orders of the coefficients of a polynomial be related to the degrees of the terms? There's a kind of disconnect in your introduction of $f(x)$ in that it came out of nowhere. You cannot assume that an arbitrary irreducible polynomial would only have terms of degrees that are multiples of $q$. In other words, exactly what are you asking?
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:16






  • 5




    Also, when the characteristic of a field (or an integral domain) is introduced, one of the first exercises is to prove that ALL the elements (with the exception of zero) have exactly the same order. So defining the characteristic as the least common multiple, while correct, feels a bit like a misdescription. It is kinda missing the main point, if you ask me :-)
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:18










  • @JyrkiLahtonen Sorry for the confusion, I think the two answers gets my idea.
    – Astrick Harren
    Dec 28 '18 at 4:52














0












0








0







There is a definition:




Characteristic: the least common multiple (can be zero) of all orders of all elements in a field.




Then for a field with characteristic 0, pick elements,
$$ alpha_1, alpha_2, ..., alpha_n$$
such that the least common multiple of their orders is $q$.



Then the irreducible,
$$ f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + ... + alpha_n x^{nq} $$
has derivative,



$$ f'(x) = qalpha_1x^{q-1} + 2qalpha_2x^{2q-1} + ... + nqalpha_nx^{nq-1} = 0 $$



It follows that $gcd(f, f') = f$, and $f$ is inseparable.



Note that this can also work in field of characteristic $p$, if we choose such $q$ less than $p$.



So could anyone proof this is wrong, in the hope that there does not exist such a $q$?










share|cite|improve this question













There is a definition:




Characteristic: the least common multiple (can be zero) of all orders of all elements in a field.




Then for a field with characteristic 0, pick elements,
$$ alpha_1, alpha_2, ..., alpha_n$$
such that the least common multiple of their orders is $q$.



Then the irreducible,
$$ f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + ... + alpha_n x^{nq} $$
has derivative,



$$ f'(x) = qalpha_1x^{q-1} + 2qalpha_2x^{2q-1} + ... + nqalpha_nx^{nq-1} = 0 $$



It follows that $gcd(f, f') = f$, and $f$ is inseparable.



Note that this can also work in field of characteristic $p$, if we choose such $q$ less than $p$.



So could anyone proof this is wrong, in the hope that there does not exist such a $q$?







abstract-algebra






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asked Dec 27 '18 at 7:59









Astrick Harren

614




614








  • 1




    Why would the additive orders of the coefficients of a polynomial be related to the degrees of the terms? There's a kind of disconnect in your introduction of $f(x)$ in that it came out of nowhere. You cannot assume that an arbitrary irreducible polynomial would only have terms of degrees that are multiples of $q$. In other words, exactly what are you asking?
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:16






  • 5




    Also, when the characteristic of a field (or an integral domain) is introduced, one of the first exercises is to prove that ALL the elements (with the exception of zero) have exactly the same order. So defining the characteristic as the least common multiple, while correct, feels a bit like a misdescription. It is kinda missing the main point, if you ask me :-)
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:18










  • @JyrkiLahtonen Sorry for the confusion, I think the two answers gets my idea.
    – Astrick Harren
    Dec 28 '18 at 4:52














  • 1




    Why would the additive orders of the coefficients of a polynomial be related to the degrees of the terms? There's a kind of disconnect in your introduction of $f(x)$ in that it came out of nowhere. You cannot assume that an arbitrary irreducible polynomial would only have terms of degrees that are multiples of $q$. In other words, exactly what are you asking?
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:16






  • 5




    Also, when the characteristic of a field (or an integral domain) is introduced, one of the first exercises is to prove that ALL the elements (with the exception of zero) have exactly the same order. So defining the characteristic as the least common multiple, while correct, feels a bit like a misdescription. It is kinda missing the main point, if you ask me :-)
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 27 '18 at 8:18










  • @JyrkiLahtonen Sorry for the confusion, I think the two answers gets my idea.
    – Astrick Harren
    Dec 28 '18 at 4:52








1




1




Why would the additive orders of the coefficients of a polynomial be related to the degrees of the terms? There's a kind of disconnect in your introduction of $f(x)$ in that it came out of nowhere. You cannot assume that an arbitrary irreducible polynomial would only have terms of degrees that are multiples of $q$. In other words, exactly what are you asking?
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Dec 27 '18 at 8:16




Why would the additive orders of the coefficients of a polynomial be related to the degrees of the terms? There's a kind of disconnect in your introduction of $f(x)$ in that it came out of nowhere. You cannot assume that an arbitrary irreducible polynomial would only have terms of degrees that are multiples of $q$. In other words, exactly what are you asking?
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Dec 27 '18 at 8:16




5




5




Also, when the characteristic of a field (or an integral domain) is introduced, one of the first exercises is to prove that ALL the elements (with the exception of zero) have exactly the same order. So defining the characteristic as the least common multiple, while correct, feels a bit like a misdescription. It is kinda missing the main point, if you ask me :-)
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Dec 27 '18 at 8:18




Also, when the characteristic of a field (or an integral domain) is introduced, one of the first exercises is to prove that ALL the elements (with the exception of zero) have exactly the same order. So defining the characteristic as the least common multiple, while correct, feels a bit like a misdescription. It is kinda missing the main point, if you ask me :-)
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Dec 27 '18 at 8:18












@JyrkiLahtonen Sorry for the confusion, I think the two answers gets my idea.
– Astrick Harren
Dec 28 '18 at 4:52




@JyrkiLahtonen Sorry for the confusion, I think the two answers gets my idea.
– Astrick Harren
Dec 28 '18 at 4:52










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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2














How can any non-zero $a_i$ in a field of characteristic $0$ have finite additive order? Suppose $a$ has finite order so that $$0=a+a+ dots a=(1+1+dots +1)a$$



Now multiply by $a^{-1}$ to obtain $$0=1+1+ dots +1$$ with say $q$ summands.



Then multiply this by an arbitrary field element $b$ to show that $b$ has order at most $q$, and every element of the field has finite order which is a factor of $q$. And the characteristic is therefore non-zero.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    1














    As noted in comments, the definition you give of characteristic is deceptive. Actually, your argument is sound: indeed




    if there exist elements $alpha_1, alpha_2, dots, alpha_n$ having finite order $>1$ such that the polynomial $$f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + dots + alpha_n x^{nq}$$ is irreducible, then $f$ is inseparable




    is a true statement.



    The only problem is that such elements don't exist.



    The reason is very simple: in a field $F$ of characteristic $0$, there is no element $alphane0$ with finite order $q>0$. Indeed, if $qalpha=0$, with $alphane0$, then, for every $betain F$,
    $$
    qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
    $$

    so the least common multiple of the orders of elements in $F$ is a divisor of $q$, hence it cannot be $0$: contradiction.



    Similarly, if an element $alphane0$ in the field $F$ of characteritic $p>0$ has order $q$, then, for every element $betain F$,
    $$
    qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
    $$

    and therefore the least common multiple of the orders of elements is a divisor of $q$. In particular $pmid q$. Thus you cannot find elements of order $q<p$.



    In a field $F$, the characteristic is the order of the identity element (taking it to be $0$, if the identity element has infinite order). Indeed, if the order of the identity element is $p>0$, then for every $alphain F$ we have $palpha=p1alpha=0$, so the order of $alpha$ is a divisor of $p$. In the case of characteristic $0$, no nonzero element can have finite order, as shown before.



    Over a ring (not a field), the argument above doesn't apply, but there is a much easier way to introduce the notion of characteristic: if $1$ is the identity element of the ring $R$, there exists a unique ring homomorphism $chicolonmathbb{Z}to R$, defined by $chi(n)=n1$ (the usual group-theoretic multiple).



    If $kmathbb{Z}$ is the kernel of $chi$ (and $kge0$ is uniquely determined), then by definition of kernel, $kalpha=0$, for every $alphain R$. If $k>0$, then the least common multiple of the orders of elements is obviously $k$ (because one element with order $k$ exists, namely $1$). If $k=0$, then all elements except $0$ have infinite order.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • So for a ring it is not necessary to have all element with the same order while for a domain is? By domain I mean the ring without zero divisors.
      – Astrick Harren
      Dec 28 '18 at 4:50










    • @AstrickHarren Yes, that's it: a domain can be embedded in a field, so the same argument as for fields applies. In a ring such as $mathbb{Z}/6mathbb{Z}$, the elements have different orders.
      – egreg
      Dec 28 '18 at 8:52













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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    How can any non-zero $a_i$ in a field of characteristic $0$ have finite additive order? Suppose $a$ has finite order so that $$0=a+a+ dots a=(1+1+dots +1)a$$



    Now multiply by $a^{-1}$ to obtain $$0=1+1+ dots +1$$ with say $q$ summands.



    Then multiply this by an arbitrary field element $b$ to show that $b$ has order at most $q$, and every element of the field has finite order which is a factor of $q$. And the characteristic is therefore non-zero.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      2














      How can any non-zero $a_i$ in a field of characteristic $0$ have finite additive order? Suppose $a$ has finite order so that $$0=a+a+ dots a=(1+1+dots +1)a$$



      Now multiply by $a^{-1}$ to obtain $$0=1+1+ dots +1$$ with say $q$ summands.



      Then multiply this by an arbitrary field element $b$ to show that $b$ has order at most $q$, and every element of the field has finite order which is a factor of $q$. And the characteristic is therefore non-zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        2












        2








        2






        How can any non-zero $a_i$ in a field of characteristic $0$ have finite additive order? Suppose $a$ has finite order so that $$0=a+a+ dots a=(1+1+dots +1)a$$



        Now multiply by $a^{-1}$ to obtain $$0=1+1+ dots +1$$ with say $q$ summands.



        Then multiply this by an arbitrary field element $b$ to show that $b$ has order at most $q$, and every element of the field has finite order which is a factor of $q$. And the characteristic is therefore non-zero.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        How can any non-zero $a_i$ in a field of characteristic $0$ have finite additive order? Suppose $a$ has finite order so that $$0=a+a+ dots a=(1+1+dots +1)a$$



        Now multiply by $a^{-1}$ to obtain $$0=1+1+ dots +1$$ with say $q$ summands.



        Then multiply this by an arbitrary field element $b$ to show that $b$ has order at most $q$, and every element of the field has finite order which is a factor of $q$. And the characteristic is therefore non-zero.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 27 '18 at 8:50









        Mark Bennet

        80.6k981179




        80.6k981179























            1














            As noted in comments, the definition you give of characteristic is deceptive. Actually, your argument is sound: indeed




            if there exist elements $alpha_1, alpha_2, dots, alpha_n$ having finite order $>1$ such that the polynomial $$f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + dots + alpha_n x^{nq}$$ is irreducible, then $f$ is inseparable




            is a true statement.



            The only problem is that such elements don't exist.



            The reason is very simple: in a field $F$ of characteristic $0$, there is no element $alphane0$ with finite order $q>0$. Indeed, if $qalpha=0$, with $alphane0$, then, for every $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            so the least common multiple of the orders of elements in $F$ is a divisor of $q$, hence it cannot be $0$: contradiction.



            Similarly, if an element $alphane0$ in the field $F$ of characteritic $p>0$ has order $q$, then, for every element $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            and therefore the least common multiple of the orders of elements is a divisor of $q$. In particular $pmid q$. Thus you cannot find elements of order $q<p$.



            In a field $F$, the characteristic is the order of the identity element (taking it to be $0$, if the identity element has infinite order). Indeed, if the order of the identity element is $p>0$, then for every $alphain F$ we have $palpha=p1alpha=0$, so the order of $alpha$ is a divisor of $p$. In the case of characteristic $0$, no nonzero element can have finite order, as shown before.



            Over a ring (not a field), the argument above doesn't apply, but there is a much easier way to introduce the notion of characteristic: if $1$ is the identity element of the ring $R$, there exists a unique ring homomorphism $chicolonmathbb{Z}to R$, defined by $chi(n)=n1$ (the usual group-theoretic multiple).



            If $kmathbb{Z}$ is the kernel of $chi$ (and $kge0$ is uniquely determined), then by definition of kernel, $kalpha=0$, for every $alphain R$. If $k>0$, then the least common multiple of the orders of elements is obviously $k$ (because one element with order $k$ exists, namely $1$). If $k=0$, then all elements except $0$ have infinite order.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • So for a ring it is not necessary to have all element with the same order while for a domain is? By domain I mean the ring without zero divisors.
              – Astrick Harren
              Dec 28 '18 at 4:50










            • @AstrickHarren Yes, that's it: a domain can be embedded in a field, so the same argument as for fields applies. In a ring such as $mathbb{Z}/6mathbb{Z}$, the elements have different orders.
              – egreg
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:52


















            1














            As noted in comments, the definition you give of characteristic is deceptive. Actually, your argument is sound: indeed




            if there exist elements $alpha_1, alpha_2, dots, alpha_n$ having finite order $>1$ such that the polynomial $$f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + dots + alpha_n x^{nq}$$ is irreducible, then $f$ is inseparable




            is a true statement.



            The only problem is that such elements don't exist.



            The reason is very simple: in a field $F$ of characteristic $0$, there is no element $alphane0$ with finite order $q>0$. Indeed, if $qalpha=0$, with $alphane0$, then, for every $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            so the least common multiple of the orders of elements in $F$ is a divisor of $q$, hence it cannot be $0$: contradiction.



            Similarly, if an element $alphane0$ in the field $F$ of characteritic $p>0$ has order $q$, then, for every element $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            and therefore the least common multiple of the orders of elements is a divisor of $q$. In particular $pmid q$. Thus you cannot find elements of order $q<p$.



            In a field $F$, the characteristic is the order of the identity element (taking it to be $0$, if the identity element has infinite order). Indeed, if the order of the identity element is $p>0$, then for every $alphain F$ we have $palpha=p1alpha=0$, so the order of $alpha$ is a divisor of $p$. In the case of characteristic $0$, no nonzero element can have finite order, as shown before.



            Over a ring (not a field), the argument above doesn't apply, but there is a much easier way to introduce the notion of characteristic: if $1$ is the identity element of the ring $R$, there exists a unique ring homomorphism $chicolonmathbb{Z}to R$, defined by $chi(n)=n1$ (the usual group-theoretic multiple).



            If $kmathbb{Z}$ is the kernel of $chi$ (and $kge0$ is uniquely determined), then by definition of kernel, $kalpha=0$, for every $alphain R$. If $k>0$, then the least common multiple of the orders of elements is obviously $k$ (because one element with order $k$ exists, namely $1$). If $k=0$, then all elements except $0$ have infinite order.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • So for a ring it is not necessary to have all element with the same order while for a domain is? By domain I mean the ring without zero divisors.
              – Astrick Harren
              Dec 28 '18 at 4:50










            • @AstrickHarren Yes, that's it: a domain can be embedded in a field, so the same argument as for fields applies. In a ring such as $mathbb{Z}/6mathbb{Z}$, the elements have different orders.
              – egreg
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:52
















            1












            1








            1






            As noted in comments, the definition you give of characteristic is deceptive. Actually, your argument is sound: indeed




            if there exist elements $alpha_1, alpha_2, dots, alpha_n$ having finite order $>1$ such that the polynomial $$f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + dots + alpha_n x^{nq}$$ is irreducible, then $f$ is inseparable




            is a true statement.



            The only problem is that such elements don't exist.



            The reason is very simple: in a field $F$ of characteristic $0$, there is no element $alphane0$ with finite order $q>0$. Indeed, if $qalpha=0$, with $alphane0$, then, for every $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            so the least common multiple of the orders of elements in $F$ is a divisor of $q$, hence it cannot be $0$: contradiction.



            Similarly, if an element $alphane0$ in the field $F$ of characteritic $p>0$ has order $q$, then, for every element $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            and therefore the least common multiple of the orders of elements is a divisor of $q$. In particular $pmid q$. Thus you cannot find elements of order $q<p$.



            In a field $F$, the characteristic is the order of the identity element (taking it to be $0$, if the identity element has infinite order). Indeed, if the order of the identity element is $p>0$, then for every $alphain F$ we have $palpha=p1alpha=0$, so the order of $alpha$ is a divisor of $p$. In the case of characteristic $0$, no nonzero element can have finite order, as shown before.



            Over a ring (not a field), the argument above doesn't apply, but there is a much easier way to introduce the notion of characteristic: if $1$ is the identity element of the ring $R$, there exists a unique ring homomorphism $chicolonmathbb{Z}to R$, defined by $chi(n)=n1$ (the usual group-theoretic multiple).



            If $kmathbb{Z}$ is the kernel of $chi$ (and $kge0$ is uniquely determined), then by definition of kernel, $kalpha=0$, for every $alphain R$. If $k>0$, then the least common multiple of the orders of elements is obviously $k$ (because one element with order $k$ exists, namely $1$). If $k=0$, then all elements except $0$ have infinite order.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            As noted in comments, the definition you give of characteristic is deceptive. Actually, your argument is sound: indeed




            if there exist elements $alpha_1, alpha_2, dots, alpha_n$ having finite order $>1$ such that the polynomial $$f(x) = alpha_0 + alpha_1 x^q + alpha_2 x^{2q} + dots + alpha_n x^{nq}$$ is irreducible, then $f$ is inseparable




            is a true statement.



            The only problem is that such elements don't exist.



            The reason is very simple: in a field $F$ of characteristic $0$, there is no element $alphane0$ with finite order $q>0$. Indeed, if $qalpha=0$, with $alphane0$, then, for every $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            so the least common multiple of the orders of elements in $F$ is a divisor of $q$, hence it cannot be $0$: contradiction.



            Similarly, if an element $alphane0$ in the field $F$ of characteritic $p>0$ has order $q$, then, for every element $betain F$,
            $$
            qbeta=qalphaalpha^{-1}beta=0
            $$

            and therefore the least common multiple of the orders of elements is a divisor of $q$. In particular $pmid q$. Thus you cannot find elements of order $q<p$.



            In a field $F$, the characteristic is the order of the identity element (taking it to be $0$, if the identity element has infinite order). Indeed, if the order of the identity element is $p>0$, then for every $alphain F$ we have $palpha=p1alpha=0$, so the order of $alpha$ is a divisor of $p$. In the case of characteristic $0$, no nonzero element can have finite order, as shown before.



            Over a ring (not a field), the argument above doesn't apply, but there is a much easier way to introduce the notion of characteristic: if $1$ is the identity element of the ring $R$, there exists a unique ring homomorphism $chicolonmathbb{Z}to R$, defined by $chi(n)=n1$ (the usual group-theoretic multiple).



            If $kmathbb{Z}$ is the kernel of $chi$ (and $kge0$ is uniquely determined), then by definition of kernel, $kalpha=0$, for every $alphain R$. If $k>0$, then the least common multiple of the orders of elements is obviously $k$ (because one element with order $k$ exists, namely $1$). If $k=0$, then all elements except $0$ have infinite order.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 27 '18 at 12:05









            egreg

            178k1484201




            178k1484201












            • So for a ring it is not necessary to have all element with the same order while for a domain is? By domain I mean the ring without zero divisors.
              – Astrick Harren
              Dec 28 '18 at 4:50










            • @AstrickHarren Yes, that's it: a domain can be embedded in a field, so the same argument as for fields applies. In a ring such as $mathbb{Z}/6mathbb{Z}$, the elements have different orders.
              – egreg
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:52




















            • So for a ring it is not necessary to have all element with the same order while for a domain is? By domain I mean the ring without zero divisors.
              – Astrick Harren
              Dec 28 '18 at 4:50










            • @AstrickHarren Yes, that's it: a domain can be embedded in a field, so the same argument as for fields applies. In a ring such as $mathbb{Z}/6mathbb{Z}$, the elements have different orders.
              – egreg
              Dec 28 '18 at 8:52


















            So for a ring it is not necessary to have all element with the same order while for a domain is? By domain I mean the ring without zero divisors.
            – Astrick Harren
            Dec 28 '18 at 4:50




            So for a ring it is not necessary to have all element with the same order while for a domain is? By domain I mean the ring without zero divisors.
            – Astrick Harren
            Dec 28 '18 at 4:50












            @AstrickHarren Yes, that's it: a domain can be embedded in a field, so the same argument as for fields applies. In a ring such as $mathbb{Z}/6mathbb{Z}$, the elements have different orders.
            – egreg
            Dec 28 '18 at 8:52






            @AstrickHarren Yes, that's it: a domain can be embedded in a field, so the same argument as for fields applies. In a ring such as $mathbb{Z}/6mathbb{Z}$, the elements have different orders.
            – egreg
            Dec 28 '18 at 8:52




















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