Example of $∫_Omega|f|^p$ uniformly bounded for $p<p_0$ but $∫_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$
I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.
Here $Omega$ is finite.
I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.
real-analysis
add a comment |
I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.
Here $Omega$ is finite.
I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.
real-analysis
See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11
add a comment |
I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.
Here $Omega$ is finite.
I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.
real-analysis
I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.
Here $Omega$ is finite.
I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.
real-analysis
real-analysis
asked Dec 29 '18 at 0:42
P.RP.R
184
184
See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11
add a comment |
See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11
See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11
See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11
add a comment |
1 Answer
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No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.
1
Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02
@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20
@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31
Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
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active
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votes
No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.
1
Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02
@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20
@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31
Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
add a comment |
No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.
1
Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02
@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20
@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31
Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
add a comment |
No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.
No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.
answered Dec 29 '18 at 0:44
mathworker21mathworker21
8,8771928
8,8771928
1
Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02
@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20
@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31
Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
add a comment |
1
Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02
@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20
@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31
Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
1
1
Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02
Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02
@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20
@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20
@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31
@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31
Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
add a comment |
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See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11