Example of $∫_Omega|f|^p$ uniformly bounded for $p<p_0$ but $∫_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$












0














I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.



Here $Omega$ is finite.



I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.










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  • See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
    – Song
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:11


















0














I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.



Here $Omega$ is finite.



I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
    – Song
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:11
















0












0








0


1





I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.



Here $Omega$ is finite.



I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.










share|cite|improve this question













I am seeking for an example of function $f$ that for $p<p_0$, $int_Omega|f|^p<M$ are uniformly bounded, but $int_Omega|f|^{p_0}=infty$.



Here $Omega$ is finite.



I tried the most usual example $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}$ for $srightarrow1^-$ but $int_0^1frac{1}{x^s}=frac{1}{1-s}$ is not bounded.







real-analysis






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share|cite|improve this question











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share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 29 '18 at 0:42









P.RP.R

184




184












  • See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
    – Song
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:11




















  • See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
    – Song
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:11


















See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11






See Fatou's lemma; en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatou%27s_lemma. You can drop the assumption $lvertOmegarvert<infty.$
– Song
Dec 29 '18 at 1:11












1 Answer
1






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No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
    – P.R
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:02










  • @P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:20












  • @P.R does that make sense?
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 8:31










  • Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
    – P.R
    Dec 30 '18 at 1:24











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









1














No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
    – P.R
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:02










  • @P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:20












  • @P.R does that make sense?
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 8:31










  • Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
    – P.R
    Dec 30 '18 at 1:24
















1














No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
    – P.R
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:02










  • @P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:20












  • @P.R does that make sense?
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 8:31










  • Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
    – P.R
    Dec 30 '18 at 1:24














1












1








1






No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.






share|cite|improve this answer












No such example exists. Since $Omega$ is finite (measure), we may restrict attention to the set where $|f| > 1$. On this set, $|f|^p$ increases to $|f|^{p_0}$ pointwise as $p uparrow p_0$. So by monotone convergence theorem, the integrals converge.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 29 '18 at 0:44









mathworker21mathworker21

8,8771928




8,8771928








  • 1




    Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
    – P.R
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:02










  • @P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:20












  • @P.R does that make sense?
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 8:31










  • Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
    – P.R
    Dec 30 '18 at 1:24














  • 1




    Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
    – P.R
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:02










  • @P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 1:20












  • @P.R does that make sense?
    – mathworker21
    Dec 29 '18 at 8:31










  • Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
    – P.R
    Dec 30 '18 at 1:24








1




1




Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02




Thanks that's right. What if $p_0=infty$?
– P.R
Dec 29 '18 at 1:02












@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20






@P.R I think $||f||_infty$ has to be at most $1$ in order for $sup_p int_Omega |f|^p$ to be finite (note that you don't have a $p$-th root). Indeed, if there were some $epsilon > 0$ so that ${|f| > 1+epsilon}$ had positive measure $mu$, then $int_Omega |f|^p ge (1+epsilon)^pmu$.
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 1:20














@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31




@P.R does that make sense?
– mathworker21
Dec 29 '18 at 8:31












Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24




Yeah. Thanks. I think it is right even with p -th root.
– P.R
Dec 30 '18 at 1:24


















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