${p_n}$ is such that $S_n = {1over p_1}+{1over p_2}+cdots+{1over p_n}$ converges. Prove $sigma_n =...












2












$begingroup$



Let ${p_n}$ denote a sequence such that:
$$
S_n = {1over p_1} + {1over p_2} + cdots + {1over p_n}
$$

converges.
Prove that:
$$
sigma_n = left(1+{1over p_1}right)left(1+{1over p_2}right)cdotsleft(1+{1over p_n}right)
$$

converges, where $n, p_n in Bbb N$.




Consider each bracket from $sigma_n$. By ${1over p_n} > 0$:
$$
forall k in Bbb N: left(1+{1over p_k}right) > 1
$$

So $sigma_n$ must be monotonically increasing by:
$$
{sigma_{n+1} over sigma_n} = left(1+{1over p_{n+1}}right) > 1
$$



To show a monotonic sequence is convergent it's sufficient to show that it's bounded above. Lets try to find the bound.
Recall:
$$
ln(1+x) le x iff (1+x) le e^x tag1
$$

So by $(1)$ we have:
$$
sigma_n le e^{S_n}
$$

But $S_n$ is convergent! And thus:
$$
sigma_n le e^L
$$

where:
$$
L = lim_{ntoinfty}S_n
$$

Which by monotone convergence theorem proves $sigma_n$ is convergent.



I'm kindly asking to verify my proof and point to the mistakes in case of any. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If $p_n >0$, $sigma_n$ is easily proved to be increasing and the inequality $sigma_n leq e^{S_n} leq e^L$ is easy as well. Some passages are very strange (why do you need $1/p_n rightarrow 0$? What is your digression about the harmonic series?) but the crux seems quite correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack please notice a part in the question section saying $n, p_n in Bbb N$
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack as far as the other notices, I agree with you, I will update the post
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:10












  • $begingroup$
    Right, thank you. I edited.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:11






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is correct now. You can actually even write that each factor $(1+1/p_n)$ is lower than $e^{1/p_n}$, shortening the argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:16
















2












$begingroup$



Let ${p_n}$ denote a sequence such that:
$$
S_n = {1over p_1} + {1over p_2} + cdots + {1over p_n}
$$

converges.
Prove that:
$$
sigma_n = left(1+{1over p_1}right)left(1+{1over p_2}right)cdotsleft(1+{1over p_n}right)
$$

converges, where $n, p_n in Bbb N$.




Consider each bracket from $sigma_n$. By ${1over p_n} > 0$:
$$
forall k in Bbb N: left(1+{1over p_k}right) > 1
$$

So $sigma_n$ must be monotonically increasing by:
$$
{sigma_{n+1} over sigma_n} = left(1+{1over p_{n+1}}right) > 1
$$



To show a monotonic sequence is convergent it's sufficient to show that it's bounded above. Lets try to find the bound.
Recall:
$$
ln(1+x) le x iff (1+x) le e^x tag1
$$

So by $(1)$ we have:
$$
sigma_n le e^{S_n}
$$

But $S_n$ is convergent! And thus:
$$
sigma_n le e^L
$$

where:
$$
L = lim_{ntoinfty}S_n
$$

Which by monotone convergence theorem proves $sigma_n$ is convergent.



I'm kindly asking to verify my proof and point to the mistakes in case of any. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If $p_n >0$, $sigma_n$ is easily proved to be increasing and the inequality $sigma_n leq e^{S_n} leq e^L$ is easy as well. Some passages are very strange (why do you need $1/p_n rightarrow 0$? What is your digression about the harmonic series?) but the crux seems quite correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack please notice a part in the question section saying $n, p_n in Bbb N$
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack as far as the other notices, I agree with you, I will update the post
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:10












  • $begingroup$
    Right, thank you. I edited.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:11






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is correct now. You can actually even write that each factor $(1+1/p_n)$ is lower than $e^{1/p_n}$, shortening the argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:16














2












2








2


2



$begingroup$



Let ${p_n}$ denote a sequence such that:
$$
S_n = {1over p_1} + {1over p_2} + cdots + {1over p_n}
$$

converges.
Prove that:
$$
sigma_n = left(1+{1over p_1}right)left(1+{1over p_2}right)cdotsleft(1+{1over p_n}right)
$$

converges, where $n, p_n in Bbb N$.




Consider each bracket from $sigma_n$. By ${1over p_n} > 0$:
$$
forall k in Bbb N: left(1+{1over p_k}right) > 1
$$

So $sigma_n$ must be monotonically increasing by:
$$
{sigma_{n+1} over sigma_n} = left(1+{1over p_{n+1}}right) > 1
$$



To show a monotonic sequence is convergent it's sufficient to show that it's bounded above. Lets try to find the bound.
Recall:
$$
ln(1+x) le x iff (1+x) le e^x tag1
$$

So by $(1)$ we have:
$$
sigma_n le e^{S_n}
$$

But $S_n$ is convergent! And thus:
$$
sigma_n le e^L
$$

where:
$$
L = lim_{ntoinfty}S_n
$$

Which by monotone convergence theorem proves $sigma_n$ is convergent.



I'm kindly asking to verify my proof and point to the mistakes in case of any. Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let ${p_n}$ denote a sequence such that:
$$
S_n = {1over p_1} + {1over p_2} + cdots + {1over p_n}
$$

converges.
Prove that:
$$
sigma_n = left(1+{1over p_1}right)left(1+{1over p_2}right)cdotsleft(1+{1over p_n}right)
$$

converges, where $n, p_n in Bbb N$.




Consider each bracket from $sigma_n$. By ${1over p_n} > 0$:
$$
forall k in Bbb N: left(1+{1over p_k}right) > 1
$$

So $sigma_n$ must be monotonically increasing by:
$$
{sigma_{n+1} over sigma_n} = left(1+{1over p_{n+1}}right) > 1
$$



To show a monotonic sequence is convergent it's sufficient to show that it's bounded above. Lets try to find the bound.
Recall:
$$
ln(1+x) le x iff (1+x) le e^x tag1
$$

So by $(1)$ we have:
$$
sigma_n le e^{S_n}
$$

But $S_n$ is convergent! And thus:
$$
sigma_n le e^L
$$

where:
$$
L = lim_{ntoinfty}S_n
$$

Which by monotone convergence theorem proves $sigma_n$ is convergent.



I'm kindly asking to verify my proof and point to the mistakes in case of any. Thank you!







calculus sequences-and-series limits proof-verification






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 18 at 14:29







roman

















asked Jan 18 at 13:58









romanroman

2,54721226




2,54721226








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If $p_n >0$, $sigma_n$ is easily proved to be increasing and the inequality $sigma_n leq e^{S_n} leq e^L$ is easy as well. Some passages are very strange (why do you need $1/p_n rightarrow 0$? What is your digression about the harmonic series?) but the crux seems quite correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack please notice a part in the question section saying $n, p_n in Bbb N$
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack as far as the other notices, I agree with you, I will update the post
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:10












  • $begingroup$
    Right, thank you. I edited.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:11






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is correct now. You can actually even write that each factor $(1+1/p_n)$ is lower than $e^{1/p_n}$, shortening the argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:16














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If $p_n >0$, $sigma_n$ is easily proved to be increasing and the inequality $sigma_n leq e^{S_n} leq e^L$ is easy as well. Some passages are very strange (why do you need $1/p_n rightarrow 0$? What is your digression about the harmonic series?) but the crux seems quite correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack please notice a part in the question section saying $n, p_n in Bbb N$
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:09






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Mindlack as far as the other notices, I agree with you, I will update the post
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Jan 18 at 14:10












  • $begingroup$
    Right, thank you. I edited.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:11






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    This is correct now. You can actually even write that each factor $(1+1/p_n)$ is lower than $e^{1/p_n}$, shortening the argument.
    $endgroup$
    – Mindlack
    Jan 18 at 14:16








2




2




$begingroup$
If $p_n >0$, $sigma_n$ is easily proved to be increasing and the inequality $sigma_n leq e^{S_n} leq e^L$ is easy as well. Some passages are very strange (why do you need $1/p_n rightarrow 0$? What is your digression about the harmonic series?) but the crux seems quite correct.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 18 at 14:06






$begingroup$
If $p_n >0$, $sigma_n$ is easily proved to be increasing and the inequality $sigma_n leq e^{S_n} leq e^L$ is easy as well. Some passages are very strange (why do you need $1/p_n rightarrow 0$? What is your digression about the harmonic series?) but the crux seems quite correct.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 18 at 14:06






1




1




$begingroup$
@Mindlack please notice a part in the question section saying $n, p_n in Bbb N$
$endgroup$
– roman
Jan 18 at 14:09




$begingroup$
@Mindlack please notice a part in the question section saying $n, p_n in Bbb N$
$endgroup$
– roman
Jan 18 at 14:09




1




1




$begingroup$
@Mindlack as far as the other notices, I agree with you, I will update the post
$endgroup$
– roman
Jan 18 at 14:10






$begingroup$
@Mindlack as far as the other notices, I agree with you, I will update the post
$endgroup$
– roman
Jan 18 at 14:10














$begingroup$
Right, thank you. I edited.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 18 at 14:11




$begingroup$
Right, thank you. I edited.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 18 at 14:11




3




3




$begingroup$
This is correct now. You can actually even write that each factor $(1+1/p_n)$ is lower than $e^{1/p_n}$, shortening the argument.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 18 at 14:16




$begingroup$
This is correct now. You can actually even write that each factor $(1+1/p_n)$ is lower than $e^{1/p_n}$, shortening the argument.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 18 at 14:16










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