If $dim(A/mathfrak p)=dim(A)-1$, then is $mathfrak p$ principal?












2












$begingroup$



Let $A$ be a commutative ring, and let $mathfrak p$ be a prime ideal in $A$. When is it true that if $dim(A/mathfrak p)=dim(A)-1$ then $mathfrak p$ is a principal ideal in $A$?




I'm pretty sure $A$ must be at least an integral domain, and I'm pretty sure that I have a proof when it's a UFD (in that case $mathfrak p$ must be a minimal nonzero prime, and therefore principal). The question is related to the question of whether or not every codimension $1$ subvariety of an irreducible variety is a complete intersection.










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$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    It is not true. Take $A =k[[x,y,z]]/(x^2-yz)$ and $p = (x,y)$. Then $dim A = 2$ and $dim A/p = dim k[[z]] = 1$. However, $p$ is not principal.
    $endgroup$
    – Youngsu
    Jan 15 at 2:57






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If all height one primes are principal in a Noetherian domain, then it is a UFD. So, most of the time, you need a UFD.
    $endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Jan 15 at 2:57
















2












$begingroup$



Let $A$ be a commutative ring, and let $mathfrak p$ be a prime ideal in $A$. When is it true that if $dim(A/mathfrak p)=dim(A)-1$ then $mathfrak p$ is a principal ideal in $A$?




I'm pretty sure $A$ must be at least an integral domain, and I'm pretty sure that I have a proof when it's a UFD (in that case $mathfrak p$ must be a minimal nonzero prime, and therefore principal). The question is related to the question of whether or not every codimension $1$ subvariety of an irreducible variety is a complete intersection.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    It is not true. Take $A =k[[x,y,z]]/(x^2-yz)$ and $p = (x,y)$. Then $dim A = 2$ and $dim A/p = dim k[[z]] = 1$. However, $p$ is not principal.
    $endgroup$
    – Youngsu
    Jan 15 at 2:57






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If all height one primes are principal in a Noetherian domain, then it is a UFD. So, most of the time, you need a UFD.
    $endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Jan 15 at 2:57














2












2








2





$begingroup$



Let $A$ be a commutative ring, and let $mathfrak p$ be a prime ideal in $A$. When is it true that if $dim(A/mathfrak p)=dim(A)-1$ then $mathfrak p$ is a principal ideal in $A$?




I'm pretty sure $A$ must be at least an integral domain, and I'm pretty sure that I have a proof when it's a UFD (in that case $mathfrak p$ must be a minimal nonzero prime, and therefore principal). The question is related to the question of whether or not every codimension $1$ subvariety of an irreducible variety is a complete intersection.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let $A$ be a commutative ring, and let $mathfrak p$ be a prime ideal in $A$. When is it true that if $dim(A/mathfrak p)=dim(A)-1$ then $mathfrak p$ is a principal ideal in $A$?




I'm pretty sure $A$ must be at least an integral domain, and I'm pretty sure that I have a proof when it's a UFD (in that case $mathfrak p$ must be a minimal nonzero prime, and therefore principal). The question is related to the question of whether or not every codimension $1$ subvariety of an irreducible variety is a complete intersection.







abstract-algebra algebraic-geometry commutative-algebra






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 15 at 20:48









user26857

39.5k124283




39.5k124283










asked Jan 15 at 1:29









leibnewtzleibnewtz

2,6211717




2,6211717








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    It is not true. Take $A =k[[x,y,z]]/(x^2-yz)$ and $p = (x,y)$. Then $dim A = 2$ and $dim A/p = dim k[[z]] = 1$. However, $p$ is not principal.
    $endgroup$
    – Youngsu
    Jan 15 at 2:57






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If all height one primes are principal in a Noetherian domain, then it is a UFD. So, most of the time, you need a UFD.
    $endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Jan 15 at 2:57














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    It is not true. Take $A =k[[x,y,z]]/(x^2-yz)$ and $p = (x,y)$. Then $dim A = 2$ and $dim A/p = dim k[[z]] = 1$. However, $p$ is not principal.
    $endgroup$
    – Youngsu
    Jan 15 at 2:57






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If all height one primes are principal in a Noetherian domain, then it is a UFD. So, most of the time, you need a UFD.
    $endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Jan 15 at 2:57








4




4




$begingroup$
It is not true. Take $A =k[[x,y,z]]/(x^2-yz)$ and $p = (x,y)$. Then $dim A = 2$ and $dim A/p = dim k[[z]] = 1$. However, $p$ is not principal.
$endgroup$
– Youngsu
Jan 15 at 2:57




$begingroup$
It is not true. Take $A =k[[x,y,z]]/(x^2-yz)$ and $p = (x,y)$. Then $dim A = 2$ and $dim A/p = dim k[[z]] = 1$. However, $p$ is not principal.
$endgroup$
– Youngsu
Jan 15 at 2:57




4




4




$begingroup$
If all height one primes are principal in a Noetherian domain, then it is a UFD. So, most of the time, you need a UFD.
$endgroup$
– Mohan
Jan 15 at 2:57




$begingroup$
If all height one primes are principal in a Noetherian domain, then it is a UFD. So, most of the time, you need a UFD.
$endgroup$
– Mohan
Jan 15 at 2:57










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