How is it that there are 'gaps' in rational numbers and yet between any two rational numbers, there exists...
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If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?
real-analysis rational-numbers
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?
real-analysis rational-numbers
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1
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gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
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– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10
1
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How do you define a "gap"?
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– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20
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The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
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– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21
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You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
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– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21
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This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
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– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?
real-analysis rational-numbers
$endgroup$
If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?
real-analysis rational-numbers
real-analysis rational-numbers
asked Jan 7 at 11:08
Nishant Pr. DasNishant Pr. Das
234
234
1
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gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
$endgroup$
– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10
1
$begingroup$
How do you define a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20
$begingroup$
The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
$endgroup$
– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
$endgroup$
– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10
1
$begingroup$
How do you define a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20
$begingroup$
The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
$endgroup$
– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23
1
1
$begingroup$
gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
$endgroup$
– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10
$begingroup$
gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
$endgroup$
– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10
1
1
$begingroup$
How do you define a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20
$begingroup$
How do you define a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20
$begingroup$
The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
$endgroup$
– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23
$begingroup$
This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
$endgroup$
– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23
add a comment |
1 Answer
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A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.
Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.
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add a comment |
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$begingroup$
A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.
Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.
Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.
Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.
$endgroup$
A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.
Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.
answered Jan 7 at 11:43
DanielWainfleetDanielWainfleet
35.1k31648
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1
$begingroup$
gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
$endgroup$
– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10
1
$begingroup$
How do you define a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20
$begingroup$
The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21
$begingroup$
This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
$endgroup$
– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23