How is it that there are 'gaps' in rational numbers and yet between any two rational numbers, there exists...












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If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?










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    gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
    $endgroup$
    – OmG
    Jan 7 at 11:10






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    How do you define a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 7 at 11:20










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    The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ned
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
    $endgroup$
    – Adam Higgins
    Jan 7 at 11:23
















1












$begingroup$


If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
    $endgroup$
    – OmG
    Jan 7 at 11:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How do you define a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 7 at 11:20










  • $begingroup$
    The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ned
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
    $endgroup$
    – Adam Higgins
    Jan 7 at 11:23














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




If there are gaps in rational numbers then lets assume we have a gap between a and b, both being rational. Then we have $frac{a+b}{2}$ which is inside the gap which essentially makes it a non-gap. What am I getting wrong?







real-analysis rational-numbers






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asked Jan 7 at 11:08









Nishant Pr. DasNishant Pr. Das

234




234








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
    $endgroup$
    – OmG
    Jan 7 at 11:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How do you define a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 7 at 11:20










  • $begingroup$
    The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ned
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
    $endgroup$
    – Adam Higgins
    Jan 7 at 11:23














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
    $endgroup$
    – OmG
    Jan 7 at 11:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How do you define a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 7 at 11:20










  • $begingroup$
    The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
    $endgroup$
    – Ned
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
    $endgroup$
    – gandalf61
    Jan 7 at 11:21










  • $begingroup$
    This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
    $endgroup$
    – Adam Higgins
    Jan 7 at 11:23








1




1




$begingroup$
gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
$endgroup$
– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10




$begingroup$
gaps are because of the existence of irrational numbers!
$endgroup$
– OmG
Jan 7 at 11:10




1




1




$begingroup$
How do you define a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20




$begingroup$
How do you define a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 7 at 11:20












$begingroup$
The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21




$begingroup$
The rationals and its complement are both dense in the reals. That's all. The word gap is ambiguous here, e.g. If you remove one point from a line, is that a "gap"?
$endgroup$
– Ned
Jan 7 at 11:21












$begingroup$
You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21




$begingroup$
You have shown that there is at least one real number between $a$ and $b$ that is rational. But to "fill" the gap you would have to show that every real number between $a$ and $b$ is rational.
$endgroup$
– gandalf61
Jan 7 at 11:21












$begingroup$
This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
$endgroup$
– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23




$begingroup$
This is because there is no well-defined notion of the “next” rational number after each rational number. (or at least the usual ordering of the rationals doesn’t allow a well-defined next rational).
$endgroup$
– Adam Higgins
Jan 7 at 11:23










1 Answer
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A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.



Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.






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    $begingroup$

    A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.



    Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      4












      $begingroup$

      A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.



      Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.



        Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        A gap in $Bbb Q$ means there exist non-empty sets $A, B$ with $Bbb Q=Acup B,$ such that (i) every $ain A$ is less than every $bin B,$ and (ii) $A$ has no largest member and $B$ has no smallest member. It does NOT mean that there are rationals $x, y$ with $x<y$ such that no rational is between $x$ and $y$. No such $x,y$ exist but if they did, the pair $(x,y)$ would be called a jump.



        Example: No $xin Bbb Q$ satisfies $x^2=2.$ Let $B={bin Bbb Q: 0<bland b^2>2}$ and let $A=Bbb Q setminus B.$ If $bin B$ then $b>frac {1}{2}(b+frac {2}{b})in B,$ so $B$ has no least member. This implies that ${ain A:a>0}={frac {2}{b}: bin B}$ has no largest member. So $A$ has no largest member.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        answered Jan 7 at 11:43









        DanielWainfleetDanielWainfleet

        35.1k31648




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