Prove that Gramian matrix is Invertible iff $(v_1,…,v_k) $ is linearly independent












2












$begingroup$


Prove that Gramian matrix is Invertible iff $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent
$G=G(v_1,...,v_k) = [leftlangle v_i,v_jrightrangle ]_{i,j=1}^k $


I have great idea to calculate $det G$ and show that if $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent then $det G neq0$ and vice versa.

Plan sounds good (?) but how to calculate $det$ of this?
begin{vmatrix} langle v_1,v_1rangle & langle v_1,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_1,v_nrangle\
langle v_2,v_1rangle & langle v_2,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_2,v_nrangle\
vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
langle v_n,v_1rangle & langle v_n,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_n,v_nrangleend{vmatrix}
.
Probably I should use some scalar product propeties but it isn't clear for me how can I do that.










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  • $begingroup$
    Since $G=V^T V$, $det(G)=det(V)^2$ is non-zero iff $det(V)$ is non-zero, i.e. iff the convex hull of $0,v_1,ldots,v_n$ has a non-zero (oriented) volume.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 2 at 14:25
















2












$begingroup$


Prove that Gramian matrix is Invertible iff $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent
$G=G(v_1,...,v_k) = [leftlangle v_i,v_jrightrangle ]_{i,j=1}^k $


I have great idea to calculate $det G$ and show that if $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent then $det G neq0$ and vice versa.

Plan sounds good (?) but how to calculate $det$ of this?
begin{vmatrix} langle v_1,v_1rangle & langle v_1,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_1,v_nrangle\
langle v_2,v_1rangle & langle v_2,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_2,v_nrangle\
vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
langle v_n,v_1rangle & langle v_n,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_n,v_nrangleend{vmatrix}
.
Probably I should use some scalar product propeties but it isn't clear for me how can I do that.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Since $G=V^T V$, $det(G)=det(V)^2$ is non-zero iff $det(V)$ is non-zero, i.e. iff the convex hull of $0,v_1,ldots,v_n$ has a non-zero (oriented) volume.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 2 at 14:25














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Prove that Gramian matrix is Invertible iff $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent
$G=G(v_1,...,v_k) = [leftlangle v_i,v_jrightrangle ]_{i,j=1}^k $


I have great idea to calculate $det G$ and show that if $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent then $det G neq0$ and vice versa.

Plan sounds good (?) but how to calculate $det$ of this?
begin{vmatrix} langle v_1,v_1rangle & langle v_1,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_1,v_nrangle\
langle v_2,v_1rangle & langle v_2,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_2,v_nrangle\
vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
langle v_n,v_1rangle & langle v_n,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_n,v_nrangleend{vmatrix}
.
Probably I should use some scalar product propeties but it isn't clear for me how can I do that.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Prove that Gramian matrix is Invertible iff $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent
$G=G(v_1,...,v_k) = [leftlangle v_i,v_jrightrangle ]_{i,j=1}^k $


I have great idea to calculate $det G$ and show that if $(v_1,...,v_k) $ is linearly independent then $det G neq0$ and vice versa.

Plan sounds good (?) but how to calculate $det$ of this?
begin{vmatrix} langle v_1,v_1rangle & langle v_1,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_1,v_nrangle\
langle v_2,v_1rangle & langle v_2,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_2,v_nrangle\
vdots&vdots&ddots&vdots\
langle v_n,v_1rangle & langle v_n,v_2rangle &dots & langle v_n,v_nrangleend{vmatrix}
.
Probably I should use some scalar product propeties but it isn't clear for me how can I do that.







linear-algebra matrices inner-product-space






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asked Jan 2 at 14:12









VirtualUserVirtualUser

69112




69112












  • $begingroup$
    Since $G=V^T V$, $det(G)=det(V)^2$ is non-zero iff $det(V)$ is non-zero, i.e. iff the convex hull of $0,v_1,ldots,v_n$ has a non-zero (oriented) volume.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 2 at 14:25


















  • $begingroup$
    Since $G=V^T V$, $det(G)=det(V)^2$ is non-zero iff $det(V)$ is non-zero, i.e. iff the convex hull of $0,v_1,ldots,v_n$ has a non-zero (oriented) volume.
    $endgroup$
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 2 at 14:25
















$begingroup$
Since $G=V^T V$, $det(G)=det(V)^2$ is non-zero iff $det(V)$ is non-zero, i.e. iff the convex hull of $0,v_1,ldots,v_n$ has a non-zero (oriented) volume.
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 2 at 14:25




$begingroup$
Since $G=V^T V$, $det(G)=det(V)^2$ is non-zero iff $det(V)$ is non-zero, i.e. iff the convex hull of $0,v_1,ldots,v_n$ has a non-zero (oriented) volume.
$endgroup$
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 2 at 14:25










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Let $v_i=sum_{k=1}^n a_{ki}e_k$, where ${e_1,dots,e_n}$ is an orthonormal basis. Then
$$
langle v_i,v_jrangle=sum_{k}sum_{l}a_{ki}a_{lj}langle e_k,e_lrangle=
sum_{k}a_{ki}a_{kj}
$$

and therefore, if $A=[a_{ij}]$, we have $G=A^TA$.



If $Gx=0$, then also $x^TA^TAx=(Ax)^T(Ax)=0$, so $Ax=0$.



The matrix $A$ is the matrix (with respect to the basis ${e_1,dots,e_n}$) of the linear map defined by $e_imapsto v_i$, for $i=1,dots,n$. The rank of this matrix is $n$ if and only if ${v_1,dots,v_n}$ is linearly independent.



If the set is linearly independent, then $Ax=0$ implies $x=0$; thus $Gx=0$ implies $x=0$ and $G$ has rank $n$.



If the set is not linearly independent, then there is $xne0$ with $Ax=0$, so also $Gx=0$ and $G$ is not invertible.



Notes. If the inner product is over the complex numbers, then $G=A^HA$ (the Hermitian transpose) and the argument goes through using the Hermitian transpose instead of the transpose. An orthonormal basis exists because of Gram-Schmidt algorithm.






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  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for clear solution
    $endgroup$
    – VirtualUser
    Jan 2 at 18:39











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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Let $v_i=sum_{k=1}^n a_{ki}e_k$, where ${e_1,dots,e_n}$ is an orthonormal basis. Then
$$
langle v_i,v_jrangle=sum_{k}sum_{l}a_{ki}a_{lj}langle e_k,e_lrangle=
sum_{k}a_{ki}a_{kj}
$$

and therefore, if $A=[a_{ij}]$, we have $G=A^TA$.



If $Gx=0$, then also $x^TA^TAx=(Ax)^T(Ax)=0$, so $Ax=0$.



The matrix $A$ is the matrix (with respect to the basis ${e_1,dots,e_n}$) of the linear map defined by $e_imapsto v_i$, for $i=1,dots,n$. The rank of this matrix is $n$ if and only if ${v_1,dots,v_n}$ is linearly independent.



If the set is linearly independent, then $Ax=0$ implies $x=0$; thus $Gx=0$ implies $x=0$ and $G$ has rank $n$.



If the set is not linearly independent, then there is $xne0$ with $Ax=0$, so also $Gx=0$ and $G$ is not invertible.



Notes. If the inner product is over the complex numbers, then $G=A^HA$ (the Hermitian transpose) and the argument goes through using the Hermitian transpose instead of the transpose. An orthonormal basis exists because of Gram-Schmidt algorithm.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for clear solution
    $endgroup$
    – VirtualUser
    Jan 2 at 18:39
















2












$begingroup$

Let $v_i=sum_{k=1}^n a_{ki}e_k$, where ${e_1,dots,e_n}$ is an orthonormal basis. Then
$$
langle v_i,v_jrangle=sum_{k}sum_{l}a_{ki}a_{lj}langle e_k,e_lrangle=
sum_{k}a_{ki}a_{kj}
$$

and therefore, if $A=[a_{ij}]$, we have $G=A^TA$.



If $Gx=0$, then also $x^TA^TAx=(Ax)^T(Ax)=0$, so $Ax=0$.



The matrix $A$ is the matrix (with respect to the basis ${e_1,dots,e_n}$) of the linear map defined by $e_imapsto v_i$, for $i=1,dots,n$. The rank of this matrix is $n$ if and only if ${v_1,dots,v_n}$ is linearly independent.



If the set is linearly independent, then $Ax=0$ implies $x=0$; thus $Gx=0$ implies $x=0$ and $G$ has rank $n$.



If the set is not linearly independent, then there is $xne0$ with $Ax=0$, so also $Gx=0$ and $G$ is not invertible.



Notes. If the inner product is over the complex numbers, then $G=A^HA$ (the Hermitian transpose) and the argument goes through using the Hermitian transpose instead of the transpose. An orthonormal basis exists because of Gram-Schmidt algorithm.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for clear solution
    $endgroup$
    – VirtualUser
    Jan 2 at 18:39














2












2








2





$begingroup$

Let $v_i=sum_{k=1}^n a_{ki}e_k$, where ${e_1,dots,e_n}$ is an orthonormal basis. Then
$$
langle v_i,v_jrangle=sum_{k}sum_{l}a_{ki}a_{lj}langle e_k,e_lrangle=
sum_{k}a_{ki}a_{kj}
$$

and therefore, if $A=[a_{ij}]$, we have $G=A^TA$.



If $Gx=0$, then also $x^TA^TAx=(Ax)^T(Ax)=0$, so $Ax=0$.



The matrix $A$ is the matrix (with respect to the basis ${e_1,dots,e_n}$) of the linear map defined by $e_imapsto v_i$, for $i=1,dots,n$. The rank of this matrix is $n$ if and only if ${v_1,dots,v_n}$ is linearly independent.



If the set is linearly independent, then $Ax=0$ implies $x=0$; thus $Gx=0$ implies $x=0$ and $G$ has rank $n$.



If the set is not linearly independent, then there is $xne0$ with $Ax=0$, so also $Gx=0$ and $G$ is not invertible.



Notes. If the inner product is over the complex numbers, then $G=A^HA$ (the Hermitian transpose) and the argument goes through using the Hermitian transpose instead of the transpose. An orthonormal basis exists because of Gram-Schmidt algorithm.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Let $v_i=sum_{k=1}^n a_{ki}e_k$, where ${e_1,dots,e_n}$ is an orthonormal basis. Then
$$
langle v_i,v_jrangle=sum_{k}sum_{l}a_{ki}a_{lj}langle e_k,e_lrangle=
sum_{k}a_{ki}a_{kj}
$$

and therefore, if $A=[a_{ij}]$, we have $G=A^TA$.



If $Gx=0$, then also $x^TA^TAx=(Ax)^T(Ax)=0$, so $Ax=0$.



The matrix $A$ is the matrix (with respect to the basis ${e_1,dots,e_n}$) of the linear map defined by $e_imapsto v_i$, for $i=1,dots,n$. The rank of this matrix is $n$ if and only if ${v_1,dots,v_n}$ is linearly independent.



If the set is linearly independent, then $Ax=0$ implies $x=0$; thus $Gx=0$ implies $x=0$ and $G$ has rank $n$.



If the set is not linearly independent, then there is $xne0$ with $Ax=0$, so also $Gx=0$ and $G$ is not invertible.



Notes. If the inner product is over the complex numbers, then $G=A^HA$ (the Hermitian transpose) and the argument goes through using the Hermitian transpose instead of the transpose. An orthonormal basis exists because of Gram-Schmidt algorithm.







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answered Jan 2 at 15:15









egregegreg

180k1485202




180k1485202












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for clear solution
    $endgroup$
    – VirtualUser
    Jan 2 at 18:39


















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks for clear solution
    $endgroup$
    – VirtualUser
    Jan 2 at 18:39
















$begingroup$
Thanks for clear solution
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Jan 2 at 18:39




$begingroup$
Thanks for clear solution
$endgroup$
– VirtualUser
Jan 2 at 18:39


















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