Simple proof Euler–Mascheroni $gamma$ constant
I'm searching for a really simple and beautiful proof that the sequence $(u_n)_{n in mathbb{N}} = sumnolimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log(n)$ converges.
At first I want to know if my answer is OK.
My try:
$limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log (n) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(k)-log(k+1) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(frac{k}{k+1})+frac{1}{k}$
$ = sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$
Now we prove that the last sum converges by the comparison test:
$frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k}) < frac{1}{k^2} Leftrightarrow k<k^2log(frac{k+1}{k})+1$
which surely holds for $kgeqslant 1$
As $ sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k^2}$ converges $ Rightarrow sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$ converges and we name this limit $gamma$
q.e.d
limits logarithms eulers-constant harmonic-numbers
|
show 4 more comments
I'm searching for a really simple and beautiful proof that the sequence $(u_n)_{n in mathbb{N}} = sumnolimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log(n)$ converges.
At first I want to know if my answer is OK.
My try:
$limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log (n) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(k)-log(k+1) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(frac{k}{k+1})+frac{1}{k}$
$ = sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$
Now we prove that the last sum converges by the comparison test:
$frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k}) < frac{1}{k^2} Leftrightarrow k<k^2log(frac{k+1}{k})+1$
which surely holds for $kgeqslant 1$
As $ sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k^2}$ converges $ Rightarrow sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$ converges and we name this limit $gamma$
q.e.d
limits logarithms eulers-constant harmonic-numbers
1
Hint: look at the function $y=1/x$ compared to "step functions" above and below that curve, and look at what happens when you integrate.
– Old John
Jan 6 '14 at 23:59
1
math.stackexchange.com/questions/306371/…
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:01
1
the diagrams are not very good, but you can get the idea here.
– Old John
Jan 7 '14 at 0:05
1
@OldJohn, I see, actually a link to a Macalester College discussion of the harmonic series. Natural mistake.
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:09
2
@OldJohn, true, never met her. There is a running joke on a TV series called NCIS, in which FBI agent Fornell married a woman whom NCIS agent Gibbs had divorced. At one point Fornell says "In my defense, I didn't believe him."
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:28
|
show 4 more comments
I'm searching for a really simple and beautiful proof that the sequence $(u_n)_{n in mathbb{N}} = sumnolimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log(n)$ converges.
At first I want to know if my answer is OK.
My try:
$limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log (n) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(k)-log(k+1) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(frac{k}{k+1})+frac{1}{k}$
$ = sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$
Now we prove that the last sum converges by the comparison test:
$frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k}) < frac{1}{k^2} Leftrightarrow k<k^2log(frac{k+1}{k})+1$
which surely holds for $kgeqslant 1$
As $ sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k^2}$ converges $ Rightarrow sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$ converges and we name this limit $gamma$
q.e.d
limits logarithms eulers-constant harmonic-numbers
I'm searching for a really simple and beautiful proof that the sequence $(u_n)_{n in mathbb{N}} = sumnolimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log(n)$ converges.
At first I want to know if my answer is OK.
My try:
$limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} - log (n) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} sumlimits_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(k)-log(k+1) = limlimits_{ntoinfty} frac{1}{n} + sumlimits_{k=1}^{n-1} log(frac{k}{k+1})+frac{1}{k}$
$ = sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$
Now we prove that the last sum converges by the comparison test:
$frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k}) < frac{1}{k^2} Leftrightarrow k<k^2log(frac{k+1}{k})+1$
which surely holds for $kgeqslant 1$
As $ sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k^2}$ converges $ Rightarrow sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty} frac{1}{k}-log(frac{k+1}{k})$ converges and we name this limit $gamma$
q.e.d
limits logarithms eulers-constant harmonic-numbers
limits logarithms eulers-constant harmonic-numbers
edited Apr 27 '17 at 6:53
k.Vijay
1,927317
1,927317
asked Jan 6 '14 at 23:55
Thomas Produit
6351721
6351721
1
Hint: look at the function $y=1/x$ compared to "step functions" above and below that curve, and look at what happens when you integrate.
– Old John
Jan 6 '14 at 23:59
1
math.stackexchange.com/questions/306371/…
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:01
1
the diagrams are not very good, but you can get the idea here.
– Old John
Jan 7 '14 at 0:05
1
@OldJohn, I see, actually a link to a Macalester College discussion of the harmonic series. Natural mistake.
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:09
2
@OldJohn, true, never met her. There is a running joke on a TV series called NCIS, in which FBI agent Fornell married a woman whom NCIS agent Gibbs had divorced. At one point Fornell says "In my defense, I didn't believe him."
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:28
|
show 4 more comments
1
Hint: look at the function $y=1/x$ compared to "step functions" above and below that curve, and look at what happens when you integrate.
– Old John
Jan 6 '14 at 23:59
1
math.stackexchange.com/questions/306371/…
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:01
1
the diagrams are not very good, but you can get the idea here.
– Old John
Jan 7 '14 at 0:05
1
@OldJohn, I see, actually a link to a Macalester College discussion of the harmonic series. Natural mistake.
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:09
2
@OldJohn, true, never met her. There is a running joke on a TV series called NCIS, in which FBI agent Fornell married a woman whom NCIS agent Gibbs had divorced. At one point Fornell says "In my defense, I didn't believe him."
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:28
1
1
Hint: look at the function $y=1/x$ compared to "step functions" above and below that curve, and look at what happens when you integrate.
– Old John
Jan 6 '14 at 23:59
Hint: look at the function $y=1/x$ compared to "step functions" above and below that curve, and look at what happens when you integrate.
– Old John
Jan 6 '14 at 23:59
1
1
math.stackexchange.com/questions/306371/…
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:01
math.stackexchange.com/questions/306371/…
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:01
1
1
the diagrams are not very good, but you can get the idea here.
– Old John
Jan 7 '14 at 0:05
the diagrams are not very good, but you can get the idea here.
– Old John
Jan 7 '14 at 0:05
1
1
@OldJohn, I see, actually a link to a Macalester College discussion of the harmonic series. Natural mistake.
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:09
@OldJohn, I see, actually a link to a Macalester College discussion of the harmonic series. Natural mistake.
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:09
2
2
@OldJohn, true, never met her. There is a running joke on a TV series called NCIS, in which FBI agent Fornell married a woman whom NCIS agent Gibbs had divorced. At one point Fornell says "In my defense, I didn't believe him."
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:28
@OldJohn, true, never met her. There is a running joke on a TV series called NCIS, in which FBI agent Fornell married a woman whom NCIS agent Gibbs had divorced. At one point Fornell says "In my defense, I didn't believe him."
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:28
|
show 4 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
One elegant way to show that the sequence converges is to show that it's both decreasing and bounded below.
It's decreasing because $u_n-u_{n-1} = frac1n - log n + log(n-1) = frac1n + log(1-frac1n) < 0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because $log(1-x)$ is a concave function, hence lies beneath the line $-x$ that is tangent to its graph at $0$; plugging in $x=frac1n$ yields $log(1-frac1n) le -frac1n$.)
It's bounded below because
$$
sum_{j=1}^n frac1j > int_1^{n+1} frac{dt}t = log (n+1) > log n,
$$
and so $u_n>0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because the sum is a left-hand endpoint Riemann sum for the integral, and the function $frac1t$ is decreasing.)
add a comment |
Upper Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&leint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n^2}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2}\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2-frac12}\
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1{n-frac12}-frac1{n+frac12}right)\[9pt]
&=1
end{align}
$$
Lower Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&geint_0^{1/n}frac{t}{1+frac1n},mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n(n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&gesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n(n+1)}\[3pt]
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1n-frac1{n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
A Better Upper Bound
Using Jensen's Inequality on the concave $frac{t}{1+t}$, we get
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=frac1nleft(nint_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}right)\
&lefrac1nfrac{nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}{1+nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}\
&=frac1{n(2n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore, since the sum of the Alternating Harmonic Series is $log(2)$,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{n(2n+1)}\
&=sum_{n=1}^infty2left(frac1{2n}-frac1{2n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=2(1-log(2))
end{align}
$$
can you copy the last part of your answer here ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 10 '17 at 9:52
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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oldest
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One elegant way to show that the sequence converges is to show that it's both decreasing and bounded below.
It's decreasing because $u_n-u_{n-1} = frac1n - log n + log(n-1) = frac1n + log(1-frac1n) < 0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because $log(1-x)$ is a concave function, hence lies beneath the line $-x$ that is tangent to its graph at $0$; plugging in $x=frac1n$ yields $log(1-frac1n) le -frac1n$.)
It's bounded below because
$$
sum_{j=1}^n frac1j > int_1^{n+1} frac{dt}t = log (n+1) > log n,
$$
and so $u_n>0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because the sum is a left-hand endpoint Riemann sum for the integral, and the function $frac1t$ is decreasing.)
add a comment |
One elegant way to show that the sequence converges is to show that it's both decreasing and bounded below.
It's decreasing because $u_n-u_{n-1} = frac1n - log n + log(n-1) = frac1n + log(1-frac1n) < 0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because $log(1-x)$ is a concave function, hence lies beneath the line $-x$ that is tangent to its graph at $0$; plugging in $x=frac1n$ yields $log(1-frac1n) le -frac1n$.)
It's bounded below because
$$
sum_{j=1}^n frac1j > int_1^{n+1} frac{dt}t = log (n+1) > log n,
$$
and so $u_n>0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because the sum is a left-hand endpoint Riemann sum for the integral, and the function $frac1t$ is decreasing.)
add a comment |
One elegant way to show that the sequence converges is to show that it's both decreasing and bounded below.
It's decreasing because $u_n-u_{n-1} = frac1n - log n + log(n-1) = frac1n + log(1-frac1n) < 0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because $log(1-x)$ is a concave function, hence lies beneath the line $-x$ that is tangent to its graph at $0$; plugging in $x=frac1n$ yields $log(1-frac1n) le -frac1n$.)
It's bounded below because
$$
sum_{j=1}^n frac1j > int_1^{n+1} frac{dt}t = log (n+1) > log n,
$$
and so $u_n>0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because the sum is a left-hand endpoint Riemann sum for the integral, and the function $frac1t$ is decreasing.)
One elegant way to show that the sequence converges is to show that it's both decreasing and bounded below.
It's decreasing because $u_n-u_{n-1} = frac1n - log n + log(n-1) = frac1n + log(1-frac1n) < 0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because $log(1-x)$ is a concave function, hence lies beneath the line $-x$ that is tangent to its graph at $0$; plugging in $x=frac1n$ yields $log(1-frac1n) le -frac1n$.)
It's bounded below because
$$
sum_{j=1}^n frac1j > int_1^{n+1} frac{dt}t = log (n+1) > log n,
$$
and so $u_n>0$ for all $n$. (The inequality is valid because the sum is a left-hand endpoint Riemann sum for the integral, and the function $frac1t$ is decreasing.)
edited Jul 5 '14 at 22:57
hardmath
28.7k94994
28.7k94994
answered Jan 7 '14 at 1:07
Greg Martin
34.7k23161
34.7k23161
add a comment |
add a comment |
Upper Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&leint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n^2}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2}\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2-frac12}\
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1{n-frac12}-frac1{n+frac12}right)\[9pt]
&=1
end{align}
$$
Lower Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&geint_0^{1/n}frac{t}{1+frac1n},mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n(n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&gesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n(n+1)}\[3pt]
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1n-frac1{n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
A Better Upper Bound
Using Jensen's Inequality on the concave $frac{t}{1+t}$, we get
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=frac1nleft(nint_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}right)\
&lefrac1nfrac{nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}{1+nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}\
&=frac1{n(2n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore, since the sum of the Alternating Harmonic Series is $log(2)$,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{n(2n+1)}\
&=sum_{n=1}^infty2left(frac1{2n}-frac1{2n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=2(1-log(2))
end{align}
$$
can you copy the last part of your answer here ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 10 '17 at 9:52
add a comment |
Upper Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&leint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n^2}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2}\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2-frac12}\
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1{n-frac12}-frac1{n+frac12}right)\[9pt]
&=1
end{align}
$$
Lower Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&geint_0^{1/n}frac{t}{1+frac1n},mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n(n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&gesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n(n+1)}\[3pt]
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1n-frac1{n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
A Better Upper Bound
Using Jensen's Inequality on the concave $frac{t}{1+t}$, we get
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=frac1nleft(nint_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}right)\
&lefrac1nfrac{nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}{1+nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}\
&=frac1{n(2n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore, since the sum of the Alternating Harmonic Series is $log(2)$,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{n(2n+1)}\
&=sum_{n=1}^infty2left(frac1{2n}-frac1{2n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=2(1-log(2))
end{align}
$$
can you copy the last part of your answer here ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 10 '17 at 9:52
add a comment |
Upper Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&leint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n^2}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2}\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2-frac12}\
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1{n-frac12}-frac1{n+frac12}right)\[9pt]
&=1
end{align}
$$
Lower Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&geint_0^{1/n}frac{t}{1+frac1n},mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n(n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&gesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n(n+1)}\[3pt]
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1n-frac1{n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
A Better Upper Bound
Using Jensen's Inequality on the concave $frac{t}{1+t}$, we get
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=frac1nleft(nint_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}right)\
&lefrac1nfrac{nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}{1+nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}\
&=frac1{n(2n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore, since the sum of the Alternating Harmonic Series is $log(2)$,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{n(2n+1)}\
&=sum_{n=1}^infty2left(frac1{2n}-frac1{2n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=2(1-log(2))
end{align}
$$
Upper Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&leint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n^2}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2}\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n^2-frac12}\
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1{n-frac12}-frac1{n+frac12}right)\[9pt]
&=1
end{align}
$$
Lower Bound
Note that
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=int_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}\
&geint_0^{1/n}frac{t}{1+frac1n},mathrm{d}t\[3pt]
&=frac1{2n(n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&gesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{2n(n+1)}\[3pt]
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac12left(frac1n-frac1{n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=frac12
end{align}
$$
A Better Upper Bound
Using Jensen's Inequality on the concave $frac{t}{1+t}$, we get
$$
begin{align}
frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)
&=frac1nleft(nint_0^{1/n}frac{t,mathrm{d}t}{1+t}right)\
&lefrac1nfrac{nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}{1+nint_0^{1/n}t,mathrm{d}t}\
&=frac1{n(2n+1)}
end{align}
$$
Therefore, since the sum of the Alternating Harmonic Series is $log(2)$,
$$
begin{align}
gamma
&=sum_{n=1}^inftyleft(frac1n-logleft(frac{n+1}nright)right)\
&lesum_{n=1}^inftyfrac1{n(2n+1)}\
&=sum_{n=1}^infty2left(frac1{2n}-frac1{2n+1}right)\[6pt]
&=2(1-log(2))
end{align}
$$
edited 1 hour ago
answered Sep 24 '17 at 12:52
robjohn♦
264k27302623
264k27302623
can you copy the last part of your answer here ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 10 '17 at 9:52
add a comment |
can you copy the last part of your answer here ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 10 '17 at 9:52
can you copy the last part of your answer here ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 10 '17 at 9:52
can you copy the last part of your answer here ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 10 '17 at 9:52
add a comment |
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1
Hint: look at the function $y=1/x$ compared to "step functions" above and below that curve, and look at what happens when you integrate.
– Old John
Jan 6 '14 at 23:59
1
math.stackexchange.com/questions/306371/…
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:01
1
the diagrams are not very good, but you can get the idea here.
– Old John
Jan 7 '14 at 0:05
1
@OldJohn, I see, actually a link to a Macalester College discussion of the harmonic series. Natural mistake.
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:09
2
@OldJohn, true, never met her. There is a running joke on a TV series called NCIS, in which FBI agent Fornell married a woman whom NCIS agent Gibbs had divorced. At one point Fornell says "In my defense, I didn't believe him."
– Will Jagy
Jan 7 '14 at 0:28