Proving a projection based on Farkas Lemma












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In an Integer Programming book, a proof is given for a theorem but i do not understand a certain step:



Theorem: Consider a polyhedron $P := {(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax+Bzleq b}$ and let $r^1$,...,$r^q$ be the extreme rays of $C_p$: the cone of $P$. Then, $proj_x(P) = {x in R^n: r^tAx leq r^t forall t = 1,...,q}$



Proof: It suffices to show that for any $x$, $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if $r^tAx>r^tb$ for some $t = 1,...,q$. By definition $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if the system $Bz <b-Ax$ is infeasible.



I get it until here



Proof (cont):
By Farkas Lemma, the latter system is infeasible if and only if there exists a vector $u in C_p$ such that $uAx geq ub$



Here is where i am lost. How do they come to this based on Farkas Lemma?



Farkas lemma:
Given matrix $A$ and vector $b$, exactly one of the following statements is true:





  1. $exists x$ such that $Ax=b$ and $x geq 0$


  2. $exists y$ such that $y^TA geq 0^T$ and $y^Tb < 0$


Definition Cone:
The cone of $P={(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax +Bz leq b}$ is $C_P = {u in R^m: uB=0, u geq 0}$










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  • $begingroup$
    Is this referring to the same question as math.stackexchange.com/questions/2968085/…? They look similar but the $R$'s are $R_+$'s and there is a $V$ instead of $C_p.$ What's the cone of $P$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:55












  • $begingroup$
    @Dap It is based on theory I found while looking for an answer to that question. Not sure if it is 100% the same. Anyway, i added the definition of the cone.
    $endgroup$
    – user3053216
    Jan 21 at 9:21
















0












$begingroup$


In an Integer Programming book, a proof is given for a theorem but i do not understand a certain step:



Theorem: Consider a polyhedron $P := {(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax+Bzleq b}$ and let $r^1$,...,$r^q$ be the extreme rays of $C_p$: the cone of $P$. Then, $proj_x(P) = {x in R^n: r^tAx leq r^t forall t = 1,...,q}$



Proof: It suffices to show that for any $x$, $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if $r^tAx>r^tb$ for some $t = 1,...,q$. By definition $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if the system $Bz <b-Ax$ is infeasible.



I get it until here



Proof (cont):
By Farkas Lemma, the latter system is infeasible if and only if there exists a vector $u in C_p$ such that $uAx geq ub$



Here is where i am lost. How do they come to this based on Farkas Lemma?



Farkas lemma:
Given matrix $A$ and vector $b$, exactly one of the following statements is true:





  1. $exists x$ such that $Ax=b$ and $x geq 0$


  2. $exists y$ such that $y^TA geq 0^T$ and $y^Tb < 0$


Definition Cone:
The cone of $P={(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax +Bz leq b}$ is $C_P = {u in R^m: uB=0, u geq 0}$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Is this referring to the same question as math.stackexchange.com/questions/2968085/…? They look similar but the $R$'s are $R_+$'s and there is a $V$ instead of $C_p.$ What's the cone of $P$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:55












  • $begingroup$
    @Dap It is based on theory I found while looking for an answer to that question. Not sure if it is 100% the same. Anyway, i added the definition of the cone.
    $endgroup$
    – user3053216
    Jan 21 at 9:21














0












0








0





$begingroup$


In an Integer Programming book, a proof is given for a theorem but i do not understand a certain step:



Theorem: Consider a polyhedron $P := {(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax+Bzleq b}$ and let $r^1$,...,$r^q$ be the extreme rays of $C_p$: the cone of $P$. Then, $proj_x(P) = {x in R^n: r^tAx leq r^t forall t = 1,...,q}$



Proof: It suffices to show that for any $x$, $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if $r^tAx>r^tb$ for some $t = 1,...,q$. By definition $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if the system $Bz <b-Ax$ is infeasible.



I get it until here



Proof (cont):
By Farkas Lemma, the latter system is infeasible if and only if there exists a vector $u in C_p$ such that $uAx geq ub$



Here is where i am lost. How do they come to this based on Farkas Lemma?



Farkas lemma:
Given matrix $A$ and vector $b$, exactly one of the following statements is true:





  1. $exists x$ such that $Ax=b$ and $x geq 0$


  2. $exists y$ such that $y^TA geq 0^T$ and $y^Tb < 0$


Definition Cone:
The cone of $P={(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax +Bz leq b}$ is $C_P = {u in R^m: uB=0, u geq 0}$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




In an Integer Programming book, a proof is given for a theorem but i do not understand a certain step:



Theorem: Consider a polyhedron $P := {(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax+Bzleq b}$ and let $r^1$,...,$r^q$ be the extreme rays of $C_p$: the cone of $P$. Then, $proj_x(P) = {x in R^n: r^tAx leq r^t forall t = 1,...,q}$



Proof: It suffices to show that for any $x$, $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if $r^tAx>r^tb$ for some $t = 1,...,q$. By definition $ x notin proj_x(P) $ if and only if the system $Bz <b-Ax$ is infeasible.



I get it until here



Proof (cont):
By Farkas Lemma, the latter system is infeasible if and only if there exists a vector $u in C_p$ such that $uAx geq ub$



Here is where i am lost. How do they come to this based on Farkas Lemma?



Farkas lemma:
Given matrix $A$ and vector $b$, exactly one of the following statements is true:





  1. $exists x$ such that $Ax=b$ and $x geq 0$


  2. $exists y$ such that $y^TA geq 0^T$ and $y^Tb < 0$


Definition Cone:
The cone of $P={(x,z) in R^n times R^p: Ax +Bz leq b}$ is $C_P = {u in R^m: uB=0, u geq 0}$







polyhedra projection






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edited Jan 21 at 10:34







user3053216

















asked Jan 18 at 21:49









user3053216user3053216

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  • $begingroup$
    Is this referring to the same question as math.stackexchange.com/questions/2968085/…? They look similar but the $R$'s are $R_+$'s and there is a $V$ instead of $C_p.$ What's the cone of $P$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:55












  • $begingroup$
    @Dap It is based on theory I found while looking for an answer to that question. Not sure if it is 100% the same. Anyway, i added the definition of the cone.
    $endgroup$
    – user3053216
    Jan 21 at 9:21


















  • $begingroup$
    Is this referring to the same question as math.stackexchange.com/questions/2968085/…? They look similar but the $R$'s are $R_+$'s and there is a $V$ instead of $C_p.$ What's the cone of $P$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dap
    Jan 21 at 6:55












  • $begingroup$
    @Dap It is based on theory I found while looking for an answer to that question. Not sure if it is 100% the same. Anyway, i added the definition of the cone.
    $endgroup$
    – user3053216
    Jan 21 at 9:21
















$begingroup$
Is this referring to the same question as math.stackexchange.com/questions/2968085/…? They look similar but the $R$'s are $R_+$'s and there is a $V$ instead of $C_p.$ What's the cone of $P$?
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 21 at 6:55






$begingroup$
Is this referring to the same question as math.stackexchange.com/questions/2968085/…? They look similar but the $R$'s are $R_+$'s and there is a $V$ instead of $C_p.$ What's the cone of $P$?
$endgroup$
– Dap
Jan 21 at 6:55














$begingroup$
@Dap It is based on theory I found while looking for an answer to that question. Not sure if it is 100% the same. Anyway, i added the definition of the cone.
$endgroup$
– user3053216
Jan 21 at 9:21




$begingroup$
@Dap It is based on theory I found while looking for an answer to that question. Not sure if it is 100% the same. Anyway, i added the definition of the cone.
$endgroup$
– user3053216
Jan 21 at 9:21










1 Answer
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$xnotinmathrm{proj}_x(P)$ if and only if the system $Bzleq b-Ax$ is infeasible.



The statement you want follows from one of the generalized forms of Farkas' lemma. In particular Theorem 3.6 in "Integer Programming" by Conforti et al says that exactly one of these holds:





  • $exists y$ such that $Byleq f$


  • $exists u$ such that $uf< 0$ and $uB=0,$ $ugeq 0$


Substituting in $z$ and $b-Ax$ for $y$ and $f$ gives what you want.





To prove the generalization from the basic version of Farkas' lemma, add slack variables $w$ to convert the system to an equality, and split $y$ into positive and negative parts:



$$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }By-By+w=ftext{ and }y^+,y^-,wgeq 0$$
or in block matrix form:
$$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }begin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}y^+\y^-\wend{pmatrix}=ftext{ and }y,y',wgeq 0$$



By Farkas' lemma this system is infeasible if and only if:
$$exists utext{ such that }ubegin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}geq 0text{ and }uf<0$$
i.e.
$$exists utext{ such that }uB=0text{ and }ugeq 0text{ and }uf<0.$$






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    $begingroup$

    $xnotinmathrm{proj}_x(P)$ if and only if the system $Bzleq b-Ax$ is infeasible.



    The statement you want follows from one of the generalized forms of Farkas' lemma. In particular Theorem 3.6 in "Integer Programming" by Conforti et al says that exactly one of these holds:





    • $exists y$ such that $Byleq f$


    • $exists u$ such that $uf< 0$ and $uB=0,$ $ugeq 0$


    Substituting in $z$ and $b-Ax$ for $y$ and $f$ gives what you want.





    To prove the generalization from the basic version of Farkas' lemma, add slack variables $w$ to convert the system to an equality, and split $y$ into positive and negative parts:



    $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }By-By+w=ftext{ and }y^+,y^-,wgeq 0$$
    or in block matrix form:
    $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }begin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}y^+\y^-\wend{pmatrix}=ftext{ and }y,y',wgeq 0$$



    By Farkas' lemma this system is infeasible if and only if:
    $$exists utext{ such that }ubegin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}geq 0text{ and }uf<0$$
    i.e.
    $$exists utext{ such that }uB=0text{ and }ugeq 0text{ and }uf<0.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      1





      +50







      $begingroup$

      $xnotinmathrm{proj}_x(P)$ if and only if the system $Bzleq b-Ax$ is infeasible.



      The statement you want follows from one of the generalized forms of Farkas' lemma. In particular Theorem 3.6 in "Integer Programming" by Conforti et al says that exactly one of these holds:





      • $exists y$ such that $Byleq f$


      • $exists u$ such that $uf< 0$ and $uB=0,$ $ugeq 0$


      Substituting in $z$ and $b-Ax$ for $y$ and $f$ gives what you want.





      To prove the generalization from the basic version of Farkas' lemma, add slack variables $w$ to convert the system to an equality, and split $y$ into positive and negative parts:



      $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }By-By+w=ftext{ and }y^+,y^-,wgeq 0$$
      or in block matrix form:
      $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }begin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}y^+\y^-\wend{pmatrix}=ftext{ and }y,y',wgeq 0$$



      By Farkas' lemma this system is infeasible if and only if:
      $$exists utext{ such that }ubegin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}geq 0text{ and }uf<0$$
      i.e.
      $$exists utext{ such that }uB=0text{ and }ugeq 0text{ and }uf<0.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1





        +50







        1





        +50



        1




        +50



        $begingroup$

        $xnotinmathrm{proj}_x(P)$ if and only if the system $Bzleq b-Ax$ is infeasible.



        The statement you want follows from one of the generalized forms of Farkas' lemma. In particular Theorem 3.6 in "Integer Programming" by Conforti et al says that exactly one of these holds:





        • $exists y$ such that $Byleq f$


        • $exists u$ such that $uf< 0$ and $uB=0,$ $ugeq 0$


        Substituting in $z$ and $b-Ax$ for $y$ and $f$ gives what you want.





        To prove the generalization from the basic version of Farkas' lemma, add slack variables $w$ to convert the system to an equality, and split $y$ into positive and negative parts:



        $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }By-By+w=ftext{ and }y^+,y^-,wgeq 0$$
        or in block matrix form:
        $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }begin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}y^+\y^-\wend{pmatrix}=ftext{ and }y,y',wgeq 0$$



        By Farkas' lemma this system is infeasible if and only if:
        $$exists utext{ such that }ubegin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}geq 0text{ and }uf<0$$
        i.e.
        $$exists utext{ such that }uB=0text{ and }ugeq 0text{ and }uf<0.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $xnotinmathrm{proj}_x(P)$ if and only if the system $Bzleq b-Ax$ is infeasible.



        The statement you want follows from one of the generalized forms of Farkas' lemma. In particular Theorem 3.6 in "Integer Programming" by Conforti et al says that exactly one of these holds:





        • $exists y$ such that $Byleq f$


        • $exists u$ such that $uf< 0$ and $uB=0,$ $ugeq 0$


        Substituting in $z$ and $b-Ax$ for $y$ and $f$ gives what you want.





        To prove the generalization from the basic version of Farkas' lemma, add slack variables $w$ to convert the system to an equality, and split $y$ into positive and negative parts:



        $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }By-By+w=ftext{ and }y^+,y^-,wgeq 0$$
        or in block matrix form:
        $$exists y^+,y^-,wtext{ such that }begin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}begin{pmatrix}y^+\y^-\wend{pmatrix}=ftext{ and }y,y',wgeq 0$$



        By Farkas' lemma this system is infeasible if and only if:
        $$exists utext{ such that }ubegin{pmatrix}B&-B&Iend{pmatrix}geq 0text{ and }uf<0$$
        i.e.
        $$exists utext{ such that }uB=0text{ and }ugeq 0text{ and }uf<0.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



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        answered Jan 23 at 5:56









        DapDap

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