Find the half-range Fourier series expansion of $f(x) = cos(x)$
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I am stuck on the problem of calculating the half-range Fourier series expansion of $$f(x) = cos(x),$$ $$0 < x < frac{pi}{2}$$
I am at the point where I have calculated the definite integral of $b_n$.
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi}int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
According to this Wikipedia link, the correct answer for $b_n$ is
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi} int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
Can someone please explain to me how to go from
$$frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
to $$frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
I understand that, for example, $$cos(npi)$$ can be written as $$(-1)^n,$$
because $cos(npi)$ has alternating $1's$ and $0's$ as $n$ increases.
However, for $sin(frac{npi}{2})$ the alteration is $1$, $0$, $-1$, $0$.
I have been stuck on this problem for hours now.
I will greatly appreciate any explanation :)
fourier-series
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am stuck on the problem of calculating the half-range Fourier series expansion of $$f(x) = cos(x),$$ $$0 < x < frac{pi}{2}$$
I am at the point where I have calculated the definite integral of $b_n$.
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi}int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
According to this Wikipedia link, the correct answer for $b_n$ is
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi} int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
Can someone please explain to me how to go from
$$frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
to $$frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
I understand that, for example, $$cos(npi)$$ can be written as $$(-1)^n,$$
because $cos(npi)$ has alternating $1's$ and $0's$ as $n$ increases.
However, for $sin(frac{npi}{2})$ the alteration is $1$, $0$, $-1$, $0$.
I have been stuck on this problem for hours now.
I will greatly appreciate any explanation :)
fourier-series
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$begingroup$
Recheck your work for $b_n$. The formula doesn't look right - the numerator should have a factor of $n$ in the least.
$endgroup$
– A.S.
Oct 17 '15 at 10:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am stuck on the problem of calculating the half-range Fourier series expansion of $$f(x) = cos(x),$$ $$0 < x < frac{pi}{2}$$
I am at the point where I have calculated the definite integral of $b_n$.
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi}int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
According to this Wikipedia link, the correct answer for $b_n$ is
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi} int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
Can someone please explain to me how to go from
$$frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
to $$frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
I understand that, for example, $$cos(npi)$$ can be written as $$(-1)^n,$$
because $cos(npi)$ has alternating $1's$ and $0's$ as $n$ increases.
However, for $sin(frac{npi}{2})$ the alteration is $1$, $0$, $-1$, $0$.
I have been stuck on this problem for hours now.
I will greatly appreciate any explanation :)
fourier-series
$endgroup$
I am stuck on the problem of calculating the half-range Fourier series expansion of $$f(x) = cos(x),$$ $$0 < x < frac{pi}{2}$$
I am at the point where I have calculated the definite integral of $b_n$.
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi}int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
According to this Wikipedia link, the correct answer for $b_n$ is
$$b_n = frac{4}{pi} int_{0}^{frac{pi}{2}} cos(x)sin(nx) dx = frac{4}{pi} cdot frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
Can someone please explain to me how to go from
$$frac{n - sin(frac{pi n}{2})}{(n^2 - 1)}$$
to $$frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
I understand that, for example, $$cos(npi)$$ can be written as $$(-1)^n,$$
because $cos(npi)$ has alternating $1's$ and $0's$ as $n$ increases.
However, for $sin(frac{npi}{2})$ the alteration is $1$, $0$, $-1$, $0$.
I have been stuck on this problem for hours now.
I will greatly appreciate any explanation :)
fourier-series
fourier-series
asked Oct 17 '15 at 10:17
Joe NiemandJoe Niemand
111
111
$begingroup$
Recheck your work for $b_n$. The formula doesn't look right - the numerator should have a factor of $n$ in the least.
$endgroup$
– A.S.
Oct 17 '15 at 10:25
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Recheck your work for $b_n$. The formula doesn't look right - the numerator should have a factor of $n$ in the least.
$endgroup$
– A.S.
Oct 17 '15 at 10:25
$begingroup$
Recheck your work for $b_n$. The formula doesn't look right - the numerator should have a factor of $n$ in the least.
$endgroup$
– A.S.
Oct 17 '15 at 10:25
$begingroup$
Recheck your work for $b_n$. The formula doesn't look right - the numerator should have a factor of $n$ in the least.
$endgroup$
– A.S.
Oct 17 '15 at 10:25
add a comment |
2 Answers
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for $n=1,5,9,....$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n-1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n+1}$$
for $n=2,4,6,8....$ all terms equal zero
for $n=3,7,11,...$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=-1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n+1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n-1}$$
now add the $frac{1}{n+1}$ with $frac{1}{n-1}$ to get what you want
$$frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n-1}=frac{2n}{n^2-1}=frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
In that link the integral is from $0$ to $pi$, but your integral is from $0$ to $frac{pi}{2}$
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add a comment |
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
for $n=1,5,9,....$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n-1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n+1}$$
for $n=2,4,6,8....$ all terms equal zero
for $n=3,7,11,...$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=-1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n+1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n-1}$$
now add the $frac{1}{n+1}$ with $frac{1}{n-1}$ to get what you want
$$frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n-1}=frac{2n}{n^2-1}=frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
for $n=1,5,9,....$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n-1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n+1}$$
for $n=2,4,6,8....$ all terms equal zero
for $n=3,7,11,...$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=-1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n+1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n-1}$$
now add the $frac{1}{n+1}$ with $frac{1}{n-1}$ to get what you want
$$frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n-1}=frac{2n}{n^2-1}=frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
for $n=1,5,9,....$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n-1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n+1}$$
for $n=2,4,6,8....$ all terms equal zero
for $n=3,7,11,...$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=-1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n+1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n-1}$$
now add the $frac{1}{n+1}$ with $frac{1}{n-1}$ to get what you want
$$frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n-1}=frac{2n}{n^2-1}=frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
$endgroup$
for $n=1,5,9,....$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n-1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n+1}$$
for $n=2,4,6,8....$ all terms equal zero
for $n=3,7,11,...$ the $sin(frac{npi}{2})=-1$
$$frac{n-sin(frac{npi}{2})}{n^2-1}=frac{n+1}{n^2-1}=frac{1}{n-1}$$
now add the $frac{1}{n+1}$ with $frac{1}{n-1}$ to get what you want
$$frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n-1}=frac{2n}{n^2-1}=frac{n((-1)^n + 1)}{(n^2 - 1)}.$$
answered Oct 17 '15 at 10:41
E.H.EE.H.E
16.9k11969
16.9k11969
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In that link the integral is from $0$ to $pi$, but your integral is from $0$ to $frac{pi}{2}$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
In that link the integral is from $0$ to $pi$, but your integral is from $0$ to $frac{pi}{2}$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In that link the integral is from $0$ to $pi$, but your integral is from $0$ to $frac{pi}{2}$
$endgroup$
In that link the integral is from $0$ to $pi$, but your integral is from $0$ to $frac{pi}{2}$
answered Oct 17 '15 at 10:59
Fikri Irvan HalimFikri Irvan Halim
261
261
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$begingroup$
Recheck your work for $b_n$. The formula doesn't look right - the numerator should have a factor of $n$ in the least.
$endgroup$
– A.S.
Oct 17 '15 at 10:25