Why If $Ha=Hb$ then $a=1a=hb$ for some $hin H$?
$begingroup$
I'm reading Robert Ash's Basic Abstract Algebra. There is the following exercise:
Given cosets $Ha,Hb$, show:
$Ha=Hb iff ab^{-1}in H$.
In the book, there is the following answer for one of the implications.
If $Ha=Hb$ $huge[$then $a=1a=hb$ for some $hin H$ $huge ]$, so $ab^{-1}=hin H$.
I don't understand how $Ha=Hb$ implies the rest marked in $huge $. That seems to be a consequence of $H$ being a group, not of $Ha=Hb$.
First, I'd like to say that what follows is - perhaps - not a proof but only a "scratch work" at best.
I have tried to think in terms of the contrapositive $(ab^{-1}notin H implies Haneq Hb).$ I noticed that not only $ab^{-1}$ need to be in $H$ but $ba^{-1}$ also need to be in $H$. So $Ha=Hb$ means:
There exists $k$, such that $ah_i=kbh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ab^{-1}$.
There exists $k$, such that $kah_i=bh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ba^{-1}$.
If $ab^{-1},ba^{-1}notin H$ the previous items are false.
But what if $ineq j$? Does it make sense to ask this? I don't know how to explain the implication in the given proof and I don't know if in my argument, it makes sense to assume $i=j$.
abstract-algebra group-theory
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm reading Robert Ash's Basic Abstract Algebra. There is the following exercise:
Given cosets $Ha,Hb$, show:
$Ha=Hb iff ab^{-1}in H$.
In the book, there is the following answer for one of the implications.
If $Ha=Hb$ $huge[$then $a=1a=hb$ for some $hin H$ $huge ]$, so $ab^{-1}=hin H$.
I don't understand how $Ha=Hb$ implies the rest marked in $huge $. That seems to be a consequence of $H$ being a group, not of $Ha=Hb$.
First, I'd like to say that what follows is - perhaps - not a proof but only a "scratch work" at best.
I have tried to think in terms of the contrapositive $(ab^{-1}notin H implies Haneq Hb).$ I noticed that not only $ab^{-1}$ need to be in $H$ but $ba^{-1}$ also need to be in $H$. So $Ha=Hb$ means:
There exists $k$, such that $ah_i=kbh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ab^{-1}$.
There exists $k$, such that $kah_i=bh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ba^{-1}$.
If $ab^{-1},ba^{-1}notin H$ the previous items are false.
But what if $ineq j$? Does it make sense to ask this? I don't know how to explain the implication in the given proof and I don't know if in my argument, it makes sense to assume $i=j$.
abstract-algebra group-theory
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
You've excluded the possibility that $ab^{-1}in H$ and $ba^{-1}notin H$, and vice-versa, not that it makes a difference.
$endgroup$
– R. Burton
Jan 10 at 19:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm reading Robert Ash's Basic Abstract Algebra. There is the following exercise:
Given cosets $Ha,Hb$, show:
$Ha=Hb iff ab^{-1}in H$.
In the book, there is the following answer for one of the implications.
If $Ha=Hb$ $huge[$then $a=1a=hb$ for some $hin H$ $huge ]$, so $ab^{-1}=hin H$.
I don't understand how $Ha=Hb$ implies the rest marked in $huge $. That seems to be a consequence of $H$ being a group, not of $Ha=Hb$.
First, I'd like to say that what follows is - perhaps - not a proof but only a "scratch work" at best.
I have tried to think in terms of the contrapositive $(ab^{-1}notin H implies Haneq Hb).$ I noticed that not only $ab^{-1}$ need to be in $H$ but $ba^{-1}$ also need to be in $H$. So $Ha=Hb$ means:
There exists $k$, such that $ah_i=kbh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ab^{-1}$.
There exists $k$, such that $kah_i=bh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ba^{-1}$.
If $ab^{-1},ba^{-1}notin H$ the previous items are false.
But what if $ineq j$? Does it make sense to ask this? I don't know how to explain the implication in the given proof and I don't know if in my argument, it makes sense to assume $i=j$.
abstract-algebra group-theory
$endgroup$
I'm reading Robert Ash's Basic Abstract Algebra. There is the following exercise:
Given cosets $Ha,Hb$, show:
$Ha=Hb iff ab^{-1}in H$.
In the book, there is the following answer for one of the implications.
If $Ha=Hb$ $huge[$then $a=1a=hb$ for some $hin H$ $huge ]$, so $ab^{-1}=hin H$.
I don't understand how $Ha=Hb$ implies the rest marked in $huge $. That seems to be a consequence of $H$ being a group, not of $Ha=Hb$.
First, I'd like to say that what follows is - perhaps - not a proof but only a "scratch work" at best.
I have tried to think in terms of the contrapositive $(ab^{-1}notin H implies Haneq Hb).$ I noticed that not only $ab^{-1}$ need to be in $H$ but $ba^{-1}$ also need to be in $H$. So $Ha=Hb$ means:
There exists $k$, such that $ah_i=kbh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ab^{-1}$.
There exists $k$, such that $kah_i=bh_j$. If $i=j$, then $k=ba^{-1}$.
If $ab^{-1},ba^{-1}notin H$ the previous items are false.
But what if $ineq j$? Does it make sense to ask this? I don't know how to explain the implication in the given proof and I don't know if in my argument, it makes sense to assume $i=j$.
abstract-algebra group-theory
abstract-algebra group-theory
asked Jan 10 at 18:19
Billy RubinaBilly Rubina
10.4k1460137
10.4k1460137
1
$begingroup$
You've excluded the possibility that $ab^{-1}in H$ and $ba^{-1}notin H$, and vice-versa, not that it makes a difference.
$endgroup$
– R. Burton
Jan 10 at 19:18
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
You've excluded the possibility that $ab^{-1}in H$ and $ba^{-1}notin H$, and vice-versa, not that it makes a difference.
$endgroup$
– R. Burton
Jan 10 at 19:18
1
1
$begingroup$
You've excluded the possibility that $ab^{-1}in H$ and $ba^{-1}notin H$, and vice-versa, not that it makes a difference.
$endgroup$
– R. Burton
Jan 10 at 19:18
$begingroup$
You've excluded the possibility that $ab^{-1}in H$ and $ba^{-1}notin H$, and vice-versa, not that it makes a difference.
$endgroup$
– R. Burton
Jan 10 at 19:18
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
$Ha=Hb$ means every element in $Ha$, in particular $1cdot a$, is also an element in $Hb$ (and vice-versa), i.e. can be written as $hb$ for some $hin H$, by definition of a right coset.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh, I get it now. This solved a doubt I had but prefered not to write (where are the 1,a,b,h from?). Now It's perfectly clear.
$endgroup$
– Billy Rubina
Jan 11 at 7:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think this is just a wonky way to write it.
If $H$ contains an [left] identity (for what I assume is the multiplication operation), then stating $a=Icdot a$ is largely redundant.
A more intuitive way to write this would be "From $Ha=Hbimplies a=hb$, for some $hin H$ (definition of [right] coset); it follows that $ab^{-1}=hbb^{-1}$; therefore $ab^{-1}=h$".
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add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
$Ha=Hb$ means every element in $Ha$, in particular $1cdot a$, is also an element in $Hb$ (and vice-versa), i.e. can be written as $hb$ for some $hin H$, by definition of a right coset.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh, I get it now. This solved a doubt I had but prefered not to write (where are the 1,a,b,h from?). Now It's perfectly clear.
$endgroup$
– Billy Rubina
Jan 11 at 7:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$Ha=Hb$ means every element in $Ha$, in particular $1cdot a$, is also an element in $Hb$ (and vice-versa), i.e. can be written as $hb$ for some $hin H$, by definition of a right coset.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh, I get it now. This solved a doubt I had but prefered not to write (where are the 1,a,b,h from?). Now It's perfectly clear.
$endgroup$
– Billy Rubina
Jan 11 at 7:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$Ha=Hb$ means every element in $Ha$, in particular $1cdot a$, is also an element in $Hb$ (and vice-versa), i.e. can be written as $hb$ for some $hin H$, by definition of a right coset.
$endgroup$
$Ha=Hb$ means every element in $Ha$, in particular $1cdot a$, is also an element in $Hb$ (and vice-versa), i.e. can be written as $hb$ for some $hin H$, by definition of a right coset.
edited Jan 10 at 18:23
answered Jan 10 at 18:22
BernardBernard
122k740116
122k740116
$begingroup$
Oh, I get it now. This solved a doubt I had but prefered not to write (where are the 1,a,b,h from?). Now It's perfectly clear.
$endgroup$
– Billy Rubina
Jan 11 at 7:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Oh, I get it now. This solved a doubt I had but prefered not to write (where are the 1,a,b,h from?). Now It's perfectly clear.
$endgroup$
– Billy Rubina
Jan 11 at 7:27
$begingroup$
Oh, I get it now. This solved a doubt I had but prefered not to write (where are the 1,a,b,h from?). Now It's perfectly clear.
$endgroup$
– Billy Rubina
Jan 11 at 7:27
$begingroup$
Oh, I get it now. This solved a doubt I had but prefered not to write (where are the 1,a,b,h from?). Now It's perfectly clear.
$endgroup$
– Billy Rubina
Jan 11 at 7:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think this is just a wonky way to write it.
If $H$ contains an [left] identity (for what I assume is the multiplication operation), then stating $a=Icdot a$ is largely redundant.
A more intuitive way to write this would be "From $Ha=Hbimplies a=hb$, for some $hin H$ (definition of [right] coset); it follows that $ab^{-1}=hbb^{-1}$; therefore $ab^{-1}=h$".
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think this is just a wonky way to write it.
If $H$ contains an [left] identity (for what I assume is the multiplication operation), then stating $a=Icdot a$ is largely redundant.
A more intuitive way to write this would be "From $Ha=Hbimplies a=hb$, for some $hin H$ (definition of [right] coset); it follows that $ab^{-1}=hbb^{-1}$; therefore $ab^{-1}=h$".
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think this is just a wonky way to write it.
If $H$ contains an [left] identity (for what I assume is the multiplication operation), then stating $a=Icdot a$ is largely redundant.
A more intuitive way to write this would be "From $Ha=Hbimplies a=hb$, for some $hin H$ (definition of [right] coset); it follows that $ab^{-1}=hbb^{-1}$; therefore $ab^{-1}=h$".
$endgroup$
I think this is just a wonky way to write it.
If $H$ contains an [left] identity (for what I assume is the multiplication operation), then stating $a=Icdot a$ is largely redundant.
A more intuitive way to write this would be "From $Ha=Hbimplies a=hb$, for some $hin H$ (definition of [right] coset); it follows that $ab^{-1}=hbb^{-1}$; therefore $ab^{-1}=h$".
answered Jan 10 at 19:13
R. BurtonR. Burton
622110
622110
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
You've excluded the possibility that $ab^{-1}in H$ and $ba^{-1}notin H$, and vice-versa, not that it makes a difference.
$endgroup$
– R. Burton
Jan 10 at 19:18