Finding rank/trace for projection involving pseudo-inverse?












0












$begingroup$


Define the projection matrix $H = X (X^T X)^- X^T$, where $(X^T X)^-$ is a pseudo/generalised inverse (ie. $A A^- A = A$).



How can I find the rank of $H$?



I know the following two facts:




  1. $H$ is idempontent


  2. Since $H$ is idempotent, $r(H) = tr(H)$



So the problem reduces to finding the trace of $H$. But here I am stuck. If $(X^T X)^-$ was a regular inverse, we could use cyclic communative property of trace to show that



$$tr(X(X^T X)^{-1} X^T) = tr((X^T X)^{-1} X^T X) = tr (I)$$



But since we have a pseudo-inverse, not a regular inverse, this approach doesn't work.










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $ker[(X^TX)^-] = ker(X^TX) = ker(X)$. This is enough to determine that $ker(H) = ker(X)$, so that $H$ and $X$ have the same rank.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 15 at 2:00


















0












$begingroup$


Define the projection matrix $H = X (X^T X)^- X^T$, where $(X^T X)^-$ is a pseudo/generalised inverse (ie. $A A^- A = A$).



How can I find the rank of $H$?



I know the following two facts:




  1. $H$ is idempontent


  2. Since $H$ is idempotent, $r(H) = tr(H)$



So the problem reduces to finding the trace of $H$. But here I am stuck. If $(X^T X)^-$ was a regular inverse, we could use cyclic communative property of trace to show that



$$tr(X(X^T X)^{-1} X^T) = tr((X^T X)^{-1} X^T X) = tr (I)$$



But since we have a pseudo-inverse, not a regular inverse, this approach doesn't work.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $ker[(X^TX)^-] = ker(X^TX) = ker(X)$. This is enough to determine that $ker(H) = ker(X)$, so that $H$ and $X$ have the same rank.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 15 at 2:00
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Define the projection matrix $H = X (X^T X)^- X^T$, where $(X^T X)^-$ is a pseudo/generalised inverse (ie. $A A^- A = A$).



How can I find the rank of $H$?



I know the following two facts:




  1. $H$ is idempontent


  2. Since $H$ is idempotent, $r(H) = tr(H)$



So the problem reduces to finding the trace of $H$. But here I am stuck. If $(X^T X)^-$ was a regular inverse, we could use cyclic communative property of trace to show that



$$tr(X(X^T X)^{-1} X^T) = tr((X^T X)^{-1} X^T X) = tr (I)$$



But since we have a pseudo-inverse, not a regular inverse, this approach doesn't work.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Define the projection matrix $H = X (X^T X)^- X^T$, where $(X^T X)^-$ is a pseudo/generalised inverse (ie. $A A^- A = A$).



How can I find the rank of $H$?



I know the following two facts:




  1. $H$ is idempontent


  2. Since $H$ is idempotent, $r(H) = tr(H)$



So the problem reduces to finding the trace of $H$. But here I am stuck. If $(X^T X)^-$ was a regular inverse, we could use cyclic communative property of trace to show that



$$tr(X(X^T X)^{-1} X^T) = tr((X^T X)^{-1} X^T X) = tr (I)$$



But since we have a pseudo-inverse, not a regular inverse, this approach doesn't work.







linear-algebra matrix-rank






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share|cite|improve this question











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asked Jan 15 at 1:49









XiaomiXiaomi

1,081115




1,081115








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $ker[(X^TX)^-] = ker(X^TX) = ker(X)$. This is enough to determine that $ker(H) = ker(X)$, so that $H$ and $X$ have the same rank.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 15 at 2:00
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $ker[(X^TX)^-] = ker(X^TX) = ker(X)$. This is enough to determine that $ker(H) = ker(X)$, so that $H$ and $X$ have the same rank.
    $endgroup$
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 15 at 2:00










2




2




$begingroup$
Note that $ker[(X^TX)^-] = ker(X^TX) = ker(X)$. This is enough to determine that $ker(H) = ker(X)$, so that $H$ and $X$ have the same rank.
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 15 at 2:00






$begingroup$
Note that $ker[(X^TX)^-] = ker(X^TX) = ker(X)$. This is enough to determine that $ker(H) = ker(X)$, so that $H$ and $X$ have the same rank.
$endgroup$
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 15 at 2:00












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