Adjoint Operator $g=ff^{*}+f^{*}f$












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Let V be a finite Vector Space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $phi$ be a inner product positive-definite. Let $f$ be an endomorphism of V we define $f^{*}$ as its adjoint.
Now we define $g=ff^{*}+f^{*}f$.



Show that $ker g= ker f cap kerf^{*}$



$supseteq$) Let $v in ker f cap kerf^{*}$, $g(v)=ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v)=0+0=0$.



Now I'm stuck with the other inclusion, any hint?
Here what I've tried so far, it might be wrong:



Let $v in ker g$ it means that $ff^{*}(v)=-f^{*}f(v)$ then:



$phi(g(v),g(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v),ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+2phi(ff^{*}(v),f^{*}f(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v)) $ Using the aforementioned relation I get: $phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-2phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 implies phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 $ I feel like i should use the properties of the adjoint "erasing" it in the inner product but i could not work out the right proof.
Thanks in advance










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let V be a finite Vector Space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $phi$ be a inner product positive-definite. Let $f$ be an endomorphism of V we define $f^{*}$ as its adjoint.
    Now we define $g=ff^{*}+f^{*}f$.



    Show that $ker g= ker f cap kerf^{*}$



    $supseteq$) Let $v in ker f cap kerf^{*}$, $g(v)=ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v)=0+0=0$.



    Now I'm stuck with the other inclusion, any hint?
    Here what I've tried so far, it might be wrong:



    Let $v in ker g$ it means that $ff^{*}(v)=-f^{*}f(v)$ then:



    $phi(g(v),g(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v),ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+2phi(ff^{*}(v),f^{*}f(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v)) $ Using the aforementioned relation I get: $phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-2phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 implies phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 $ I feel like i should use the properties of the adjoint "erasing" it in the inner product but i could not work out the right proof.
    Thanks in advance










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let V be a finite Vector Space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $phi$ be a inner product positive-definite. Let $f$ be an endomorphism of V we define $f^{*}$ as its adjoint.
      Now we define $g=ff^{*}+f^{*}f$.



      Show that $ker g= ker f cap kerf^{*}$



      $supseteq$) Let $v in ker f cap kerf^{*}$, $g(v)=ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v)=0+0=0$.



      Now I'm stuck with the other inclusion, any hint?
      Here what I've tried so far, it might be wrong:



      Let $v in ker g$ it means that $ff^{*}(v)=-f^{*}f(v)$ then:



      $phi(g(v),g(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v),ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+2phi(ff^{*}(v),f^{*}f(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v)) $ Using the aforementioned relation I get: $phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-2phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 implies phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 $ I feel like i should use the properties of the adjoint "erasing" it in the inner product but i could not work out the right proof.
      Thanks in advance










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let V be a finite Vector Space over $mathbb{R}$. Let $phi$ be a inner product positive-definite. Let $f$ be an endomorphism of V we define $f^{*}$ as its adjoint.
      Now we define $g=ff^{*}+f^{*}f$.



      Show that $ker g= ker f cap kerf^{*}$



      $supseteq$) Let $v in ker f cap kerf^{*}$, $g(v)=ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v)=0+0=0$.



      Now I'm stuck with the other inclusion, any hint?
      Here what I've tried so far, it might be wrong:



      Let $v in ker g$ it means that $ff^{*}(v)=-f^{*}f(v)$ then:



      $phi(g(v),g(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v),ff^{*}(v)+f^{*}f(v))=0 implies phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+2phi(ff^{*}(v),f^{*}f(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v)) $ Using the aforementioned relation I get: $phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))+phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-2phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 implies phi(f^{*}f(v),f^{*}f(v))-phi(ff^{*}(v),ff^{*}(v))=0 $ I feel like i should use the properties of the adjoint "erasing" it in the inner product but i could not work out the right proof.
      Thanks in advance







      linear-algebra






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      asked Jan 6 at 12:43









      SMCSMC

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