Op-Amp gain calculation












1












$begingroup$


I'm trying to find R4 that will make:



$$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$



The operational amplifier is ideal.



My attempt: In the '-' input there is a virtual ground, so the equivalent resistor above is $$(R2||R3) + R4$$



Using the formula for inverter amplifier:



$$ G = -frac{(R2||R3) + R4}{R1}$$



The answer is approximately $$R4=120MOmega$$



I know from a simulation that the answer is around $$24kOmega$$
Where is my mistake?





schematic





simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab










share|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    are you positively sure about the value of R1?
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:37










  • $begingroup$
    I do. Here is a screenshot of the simulation: link
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:47












  • $begingroup$
    That simulator isn't very good. It's allowing 120 V out of an op-amp. Your maths appears correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Transistor
    Jan 5 at 13:53










  • $begingroup$
    Edit: I fixed the simulation the, op-amp voltage is 15V - -15V Link and same result with 24kOhm
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    @bp7070 by using a smaller input voltage. You need to assume a lot of things to be more ideal than they typically can be. For example, tolerances of the resistors become pretty interesting, considering the scale of R3 compared to the rest.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:59
















1












$begingroup$


I'm trying to find R4 that will make:



$$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$



The operational amplifier is ideal.



My attempt: In the '-' input there is a virtual ground, so the equivalent resistor above is $$(R2||R3) + R4$$



Using the formula for inverter amplifier:



$$ G = -frac{(R2||R3) + R4}{R1}$$



The answer is approximately $$R4=120MOmega$$



I know from a simulation that the answer is around $$24kOmega$$
Where is my mistake?





schematic





simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab










share|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    are you positively sure about the value of R1?
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:37










  • $begingroup$
    I do. Here is a screenshot of the simulation: link
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:47












  • $begingroup$
    That simulator isn't very good. It's allowing 120 V out of an op-amp. Your maths appears correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Transistor
    Jan 5 at 13:53










  • $begingroup$
    Edit: I fixed the simulation the, op-amp voltage is 15V - -15V Link and same result with 24kOhm
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    @bp7070 by using a smaller input voltage. You need to assume a lot of things to be more ideal than they typically can be. For example, tolerances of the resistors become pretty interesting, considering the scale of R3 compared to the rest.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:59














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I'm trying to find R4 that will make:



$$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$



The operational amplifier is ideal.



My attempt: In the '-' input there is a virtual ground, so the equivalent resistor above is $$(R2||R3) + R4$$



Using the formula for inverter amplifier:



$$ G = -frac{(R2||R3) + R4}{R1}$$



The answer is approximately $$R4=120MOmega$$



I know from a simulation that the answer is around $$24kOmega$$
Where is my mistake?





schematic





simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab










share|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'm trying to find R4 that will make:



$$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$



The operational amplifier is ideal.



My attempt: In the '-' input there is a virtual ground, so the equivalent resistor above is $$(R2||R3) + R4$$



Using the formula for inverter amplifier:



$$ G = -frac{(R2||R3) + R4}{R1}$$



The answer is approximately $$R4=120MOmega$$



I know from a simulation that the answer is around $$24kOmega$$
Where is my mistake?





schematic





simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab







circuit-analysis analog operational-amplifier






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked Jan 5 at 13:35









bp7070bp7070

82




82












  • $begingroup$
    are you positively sure about the value of R1?
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:37










  • $begingroup$
    I do. Here is a screenshot of the simulation: link
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:47












  • $begingroup$
    That simulator isn't very good. It's allowing 120 V out of an op-amp. Your maths appears correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Transistor
    Jan 5 at 13:53










  • $begingroup$
    Edit: I fixed the simulation the, op-amp voltage is 15V - -15V Link and same result with 24kOhm
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    @bp7070 by using a smaller input voltage. You need to assume a lot of things to be more ideal than they typically can be. For example, tolerances of the resistors become pretty interesting, considering the scale of R3 compared to the rest.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:59


















  • $begingroup$
    are you positively sure about the value of R1?
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:37










  • $begingroup$
    I do. Here is a screenshot of the simulation: link
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:47












  • $begingroup$
    That simulator isn't very good. It's allowing 120 V out of an op-amp. Your maths appears correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Transistor
    Jan 5 at 13:53










  • $begingroup$
    Edit: I fixed the simulation the, op-amp voltage is 15V - -15V Link and same result with 24kOhm
    $endgroup$
    – bp7070
    Jan 5 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    @bp7070 by using a smaller input voltage. You need to assume a lot of things to be more ideal than they typically can be. For example, tolerances of the resistors become pretty interesting, considering the scale of R3 compared to the rest.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus Müller
    Jan 5 at 13:59
















$begingroup$
are you positively sure about the value of R1?
$endgroup$
– Marcus Müller
Jan 5 at 13:37




$begingroup$
are you positively sure about the value of R1?
$endgroup$
– Marcus Müller
Jan 5 at 13:37












$begingroup$
I do. Here is a screenshot of the simulation: link
$endgroup$
– bp7070
Jan 5 at 13:47






$begingroup$
I do. Here is a screenshot of the simulation: link
$endgroup$
– bp7070
Jan 5 at 13:47














$begingroup$
That simulator isn't very good. It's allowing 120 V out of an op-amp. Your maths appears correct.
$endgroup$
– Transistor
Jan 5 at 13:53




$begingroup$
That simulator isn't very good. It's allowing 120 V out of an op-amp. Your maths appears correct.
$endgroup$
– Transistor
Jan 5 at 13:53












$begingroup$
Edit: I fixed the simulation the, op-amp voltage is 15V - -15V Link and same result with 24kOhm
$endgroup$
– bp7070
Jan 5 at 13:55






$begingroup$
Edit: I fixed the simulation the, op-amp voltage is 15V - -15V Link and same result with 24kOhm
$endgroup$
– bp7070
Jan 5 at 13:55














$begingroup$
@bp7070 by using a smaller input voltage. You need to assume a lot of things to be more ideal than they typically can be. For example, tolerances of the resistors become pretty interesting, considering the scale of R3 compared to the rest.
$endgroup$
– Marcus Müller
Jan 5 at 13:59




$begingroup$
@bp7070 by using a smaller input voltage. You need to assume a lot of things to be more ideal than they typically can be. For example, tolerances of the resistors become pretty interesting, considering the scale of R3 compared to the rest.
$endgroup$
– Marcus Müller
Jan 5 at 13:59










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

One option to determine the gain of this circuit is to use superposition and determine the voltage at the inverting pin which should be 0 V with an idealized op-amp. First, set $V_{out}$ to 0 V and determine $V_{-}$:



enter image description here



$V_{(2a)}=frac{R_4||R_3+R_2}{R_4||R_3+R_2+R_1}V_{in}$



Then, set $V_{in}$ to 0 V and determine again the voltage at $V_{-}$:



enter image description here



Doing the simple maths ok leads to;



$V_{(2b)}=V_{out}frac{R_3}{R_3+R_4}frac{R_1}{R_1+R_2+R_3||R_4}$



Then you say that $V_{-}=V_{(2a)}+V_{(2b)}=0$ and you solve for $V_{out}$ and factor the result. You should find:



$G=-frac{R_2(R_3+R_4)+R_3R_4}{R_1R_3}$



and the value of $R_4$ to have -120 V as an output of this op-amp is given by



$R_4=-frac{R_2R_3-120R_1R_3}{R_2+R_3}=23.895;kOmega$



The below SPICE simulation confirm the value with a perfect op-amp:



enter image description here



Another option would have consisted of using the EET or extra-element theorem which is part of the FACTs but using superposition is already part of the FACTs toolbox.






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    Here is an alternative solution:



    Applying the star-triangle-transformation we get thee other resistors.



    However, two of them play no role for the closed-loop gain because they are located at the output to ground (pure load) resp. between the inverting input and ground (no influence on closed loop gain).
    Hence, there is only one resistor RF left between output and inverting input (one single feedback resistor).



    Using the known resistor values it is no problem to find the value of this feedback resistor RF which is a function of the unknown resistor R4.



    My result: R4=23.995k-0.09998k=23.895kohms.






    share|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Guten-tag LvW, you have been faster than me for this one : )
      $endgroup$
      – Verbal Kint
      Jan 5 at 16:56










    • $begingroup$
      As always: I do my very best....however, primarily regarding the content of a answer and not the speed....
      $endgroup$
      – LvW
      Jan 5 at 17:52






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Good comment, quality versus speed: I agree! Why are you now flagged as a new contributor?
      $endgroup$
      – Verbal Kint
      Jan 5 at 17:58










    • $begingroup$
      I have changed the PC machine - and suddenly they have treated me as a new member. Don`t know why....Up to now I have used Windoes-XP and now I am with 10...I had a lot of problems, but now it seems to be OK.
      $endgroup$
      – LvW
      Jan 5 at 18:15





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Given the value of R2 (500 kohm) it will barely be loading the 100 ohm resistor (R3) and so, to obtain a gain of -120, a close approximation (given that R4 will need to be orders of magnitude greater than R3) is to choose a value for R4 that is 120 times R3. But, noting that R2 and R1 have a ratio of 0.5, the real value for R4 is close to 240 times that of R1 i.e. 24 kohm.




    Where is my mistake?




    I don't recognize your approach.



    You could do it more thoroughly by estimating the equivalent Thevenin source voltage and impedance produced by the op-amp output, R4 and R3 of course. Then recognize that the source impedance is in series with R2.






    share|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks, why did you conclude that the ratio of R1 and R2 doubles the needed value of R4?
      $endgroup$
      – bp7070
      Jan 5 at 14:29










    • $begingroup$
      Because if R1 and R2 were equal (at say 1 Mohm), the attenuation brought about by R4 and R3 would only need to be 120:1 to obtain an overall gain of -120.
      $endgroup$
      – Andy aka
      Jan 5 at 14:41





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Ok, time for idealized opamp rules.





    1. No current into opamp inputs




    So, all current that flows through R1 also has to flow through R2.




    (derivative rule) An opamp in negative feedback will coerce its inputs to take 0V difference.




    That means V⁻ will be 0V (GND potential).



    From that follows that the right hand side of R2 (where the other resistors attach) is at - (Vin/2), since R1 = 2 R2 (and the same current flows through both).



    Since the voltage across R3 is $V_text{node}=-frac12 V_text{in}$, the current through R3 is



    $$I_3 = frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}text,$$



    which leaves us with



    begin{align}
    I_4 &= I_text{in} - I_3\
    &= frac{V_text{in}}{mathrm R1} - frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}\
    &=V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)
    end{align}

    to flow through R4.



    That yields an output voltage of



    begin{align}
    V_text{out} &= V_text{node} + I_4cdot mathrm R_4\
    &=V_text{node} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
    &= -frac12 V_text{in} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
    &= V_text{in}left(frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12right)text.
    end{align}



    The gain is hence



    begin{align}
    frac{V_text{out}}{V_text{in}} &= frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12 \
    &overset != -120\
    -119.5 &= mathrm R4left(frac{1}{mathrm R1}+frac{1}{2mathrm R3}right)
    end{align}



    I must admit I can't find a non-negative solution for R4, so I must've gone wrong somewhere.






    share|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Thanks for the explenation, as you said the voltage at the node between R3 and R4 is $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}$$. Using voltage devider: $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}=V_{out}frac{100}{R4+100}$$, while $$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$ gives the answer $$R4=23.9kOmega$$
      $endgroup$
      – bp7070
      Jan 5 at 14:58












    • $begingroup$
      hm, can't do the voltage divider here, since R3 isn't unloaded and the current might also go into R2
      $endgroup$
      – Marcus Müller
      Jan 5 at 16:16











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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes








    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    One option to determine the gain of this circuit is to use superposition and determine the voltage at the inverting pin which should be 0 V with an idealized op-amp. First, set $V_{out}$ to 0 V and determine $V_{-}$:



    enter image description here



    $V_{(2a)}=frac{R_4||R_3+R_2}{R_4||R_3+R_2+R_1}V_{in}$



    Then, set $V_{in}$ to 0 V and determine again the voltage at $V_{-}$:



    enter image description here



    Doing the simple maths ok leads to;



    $V_{(2b)}=V_{out}frac{R_3}{R_3+R_4}frac{R_1}{R_1+R_2+R_3||R_4}$



    Then you say that $V_{-}=V_{(2a)}+V_{(2b)}=0$ and you solve for $V_{out}$ and factor the result. You should find:



    $G=-frac{R_2(R_3+R_4)+R_3R_4}{R_1R_3}$



    and the value of $R_4$ to have -120 V as an output of this op-amp is given by



    $R_4=-frac{R_2R_3-120R_1R_3}{R_2+R_3}=23.895;kOmega$



    The below SPICE simulation confirm the value with a perfect op-amp:



    enter image description here



    Another option would have consisted of using the EET or extra-element theorem which is part of the FACTs but using superposition is already part of the FACTs toolbox.






    share|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      One option to determine the gain of this circuit is to use superposition and determine the voltage at the inverting pin which should be 0 V with an idealized op-amp. First, set $V_{out}$ to 0 V and determine $V_{-}$:



      enter image description here



      $V_{(2a)}=frac{R_4||R_3+R_2}{R_4||R_3+R_2+R_1}V_{in}$



      Then, set $V_{in}$ to 0 V and determine again the voltage at $V_{-}$:



      enter image description here



      Doing the simple maths ok leads to;



      $V_{(2b)}=V_{out}frac{R_3}{R_3+R_4}frac{R_1}{R_1+R_2+R_3||R_4}$



      Then you say that $V_{-}=V_{(2a)}+V_{(2b)}=0$ and you solve for $V_{out}$ and factor the result. You should find:



      $G=-frac{R_2(R_3+R_4)+R_3R_4}{R_1R_3}$



      and the value of $R_4$ to have -120 V as an output of this op-amp is given by



      $R_4=-frac{R_2R_3-120R_1R_3}{R_2+R_3}=23.895;kOmega$



      The below SPICE simulation confirm the value with a perfect op-amp:



      enter image description here



      Another option would have consisted of using the EET or extra-element theorem which is part of the FACTs but using superposition is already part of the FACTs toolbox.






      share|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        One option to determine the gain of this circuit is to use superposition and determine the voltage at the inverting pin which should be 0 V with an idealized op-amp. First, set $V_{out}$ to 0 V and determine $V_{-}$:



        enter image description here



        $V_{(2a)}=frac{R_4||R_3+R_2}{R_4||R_3+R_2+R_1}V_{in}$



        Then, set $V_{in}$ to 0 V and determine again the voltage at $V_{-}$:



        enter image description here



        Doing the simple maths ok leads to;



        $V_{(2b)}=V_{out}frac{R_3}{R_3+R_4}frac{R_1}{R_1+R_2+R_3||R_4}$



        Then you say that $V_{-}=V_{(2a)}+V_{(2b)}=0$ and you solve for $V_{out}$ and factor the result. You should find:



        $G=-frac{R_2(R_3+R_4)+R_3R_4}{R_1R_3}$



        and the value of $R_4$ to have -120 V as an output of this op-amp is given by



        $R_4=-frac{R_2R_3-120R_1R_3}{R_2+R_3}=23.895;kOmega$



        The below SPICE simulation confirm the value with a perfect op-amp:



        enter image description here



        Another option would have consisted of using the EET or extra-element theorem which is part of the FACTs but using superposition is already part of the FACTs toolbox.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        One option to determine the gain of this circuit is to use superposition and determine the voltage at the inverting pin which should be 0 V with an idealized op-amp. First, set $V_{out}$ to 0 V and determine $V_{-}$:



        enter image description here



        $V_{(2a)}=frac{R_4||R_3+R_2}{R_4||R_3+R_2+R_1}V_{in}$



        Then, set $V_{in}$ to 0 V and determine again the voltage at $V_{-}$:



        enter image description here



        Doing the simple maths ok leads to;



        $V_{(2b)}=V_{out}frac{R_3}{R_3+R_4}frac{R_1}{R_1+R_2+R_3||R_4}$



        Then you say that $V_{-}=V_{(2a)}+V_{(2b)}=0$ and you solve for $V_{out}$ and factor the result. You should find:



        $G=-frac{R_2(R_3+R_4)+R_3R_4}{R_1R_3}$



        and the value of $R_4$ to have -120 V as an output of this op-amp is given by



        $R_4=-frac{R_2R_3-120R_1R_3}{R_2+R_3}=23.895;kOmega$



        The below SPICE simulation confirm the value with a perfect op-amp:



        enter image description here



        Another option would have consisted of using the EET or extra-element theorem which is part of the FACTs but using superposition is already part of the FACTs toolbox.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered Jan 5 at 16:53









        Verbal KintVerbal Kint

        3,2881312




        3,2881312

























            2












            $begingroup$

            Here is an alternative solution:



            Applying the star-triangle-transformation we get thee other resistors.



            However, two of them play no role for the closed-loop gain because they are located at the output to ground (pure load) resp. between the inverting input and ground (no influence on closed loop gain).
            Hence, there is only one resistor RF left between output and inverting input (one single feedback resistor).



            Using the known resistor values it is no problem to find the value of this feedback resistor RF which is a function of the unknown resistor R4.



            My result: R4=23.995k-0.09998k=23.895kohms.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Guten-tag LvW, you have been faster than me for this one : )
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 16:56










            • $begingroup$
              As always: I do my very best....however, primarily regarding the content of a answer and not the speed....
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 17:52






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good comment, quality versus speed: I agree! Why are you now flagged as a new contributor?
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 17:58










            • $begingroup$
              I have changed the PC machine - and suddenly they have treated me as a new member. Don`t know why....Up to now I have used Windoes-XP and now I am with 10...I had a lot of problems, but now it seems to be OK.
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 18:15


















            2












            $begingroup$

            Here is an alternative solution:



            Applying the star-triangle-transformation we get thee other resistors.



            However, two of them play no role for the closed-loop gain because they are located at the output to ground (pure load) resp. between the inverting input and ground (no influence on closed loop gain).
            Hence, there is only one resistor RF left between output and inverting input (one single feedback resistor).



            Using the known resistor values it is no problem to find the value of this feedback resistor RF which is a function of the unknown resistor R4.



            My result: R4=23.995k-0.09998k=23.895kohms.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Guten-tag LvW, you have been faster than me for this one : )
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 16:56










            • $begingroup$
              As always: I do my very best....however, primarily regarding the content of a answer and not the speed....
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 17:52






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good comment, quality versus speed: I agree! Why are you now flagged as a new contributor?
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 17:58










            • $begingroup$
              I have changed the PC machine - and suddenly they have treated me as a new member. Don`t know why....Up to now I have used Windoes-XP and now I am with 10...I had a lot of problems, but now it seems to be OK.
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 18:15
















            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            Here is an alternative solution:



            Applying the star-triangle-transformation we get thee other resistors.



            However, two of them play no role for the closed-loop gain because they are located at the output to ground (pure load) resp. between the inverting input and ground (no influence on closed loop gain).
            Hence, there is only one resistor RF left between output and inverting input (one single feedback resistor).



            Using the known resistor values it is no problem to find the value of this feedback resistor RF which is a function of the unknown resistor R4.



            My result: R4=23.995k-0.09998k=23.895kohms.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Here is an alternative solution:



            Applying the star-triangle-transformation we get thee other resistors.



            However, two of them play no role for the closed-loop gain because they are located at the output to ground (pure load) resp. between the inverting input and ground (no influence on closed loop gain).
            Hence, there is only one resistor RF left between output and inverting input (one single feedback resistor).



            Using the known resistor values it is no problem to find the value of this feedback resistor RF which is a function of the unknown resistor R4.



            My result: R4=23.995k-0.09998k=23.895kohms.







            share|improve this answer














            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited Jan 5 at 16:15

























            answered Jan 5 at 16:08









            LvWLvW

            14.4k21130




            14.4k21130












            • $begingroup$
              Guten-tag LvW, you have been faster than me for this one : )
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 16:56










            • $begingroup$
              As always: I do my very best....however, primarily regarding the content of a answer and not the speed....
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 17:52






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good comment, quality versus speed: I agree! Why are you now flagged as a new contributor?
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 17:58










            • $begingroup$
              I have changed the PC machine - and suddenly they have treated me as a new member. Don`t know why....Up to now I have used Windoes-XP and now I am with 10...I had a lot of problems, but now it seems to be OK.
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 18:15




















            • $begingroup$
              Guten-tag LvW, you have been faster than me for this one : )
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 16:56










            • $begingroup$
              As always: I do my very best....however, primarily regarding the content of a answer and not the speed....
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 17:52






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Good comment, quality versus speed: I agree! Why are you now flagged as a new contributor?
              $endgroup$
              – Verbal Kint
              Jan 5 at 17:58










            • $begingroup$
              I have changed the PC machine - and suddenly they have treated me as a new member. Don`t know why....Up to now I have used Windoes-XP and now I am with 10...I had a lot of problems, but now it seems to be OK.
              $endgroup$
              – LvW
              Jan 5 at 18:15


















            $begingroup$
            Guten-tag LvW, you have been faster than me for this one : )
            $endgroup$
            – Verbal Kint
            Jan 5 at 16:56




            $begingroup$
            Guten-tag LvW, you have been faster than me for this one : )
            $endgroup$
            – Verbal Kint
            Jan 5 at 16:56












            $begingroup$
            As always: I do my very best....however, primarily regarding the content of a answer and not the speed....
            $endgroup$
            – LvW
            Jan 5 at 17:52




            $begingroup$
            As always: I do my very best....however, primarily regarding the content of a answer and not the speed....
            $endgroup$
            – LvW
            Jan 5 at 17:52




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            Good comment, quality versus speed: I agree! Why are you now flagged as a new contributor?
            $endgroup$
            – Verbal Kint
            Jan 5 at 17:58




            $begingroup$
            Good comment, quality versus speed: I agree! Why are you now flagged as a new contributor?
            $endgroup$
            – Verbal Kint
            Jan 5 at 17:58












            $begingroup$
            I have changed the PC machine - and suddenly they have treated me as a new member. Don`t know why....Up to now I have used Windoes-XP and now I am with 10...I had a lot of problems, but now it seems to be OK.
            $endgroup$
            – LvW
            Jan 5 at 18:15






            $begingroup$
            I have changed the PC machine - and suddenly they have treated me as a new member. Don`t know why....Up to now I have used Windoes-XP and now I am with 10...I had a lot of problems, but now it seems to be OK.
            $endgroup$
            – LvW
            Jan 5 at 18:15













            0












            $begingroup$

            Given the value of R2 (500 kohm) it will barely be loading the 100 ohm resistor (R3) and so, to obtain a gain of -120, a close approximation (given that R4 will need to be orders of magnitude greater than R3) is to choose a value for R4 that is 120 times R3. But, noting that R2 and R1 have a ratio of 0.5, the real value for R4 is close to 240 times that of R1 i.e. 24 kohm.




            Where is my mistake?




            I don't recognize your approach.



            You could do it more thoroughly by estimating the equivalent Thevenin source voltage and impedance produced by the op-amp output, R4 and R3 of course. Then recognize that the source impedance is in series with R2.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, why did you conclude that the ratio of R1 and R2 doubles the needed value of R4?
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:29










            • $begingroup$
              Because if R1 and R2 were equal (at say 1 Mohm), the attenuation brought about by R4 and R3 would only need to be 120:1 to obtain an overall gain of -120.
              $endgroup$
              – Andy aka
              Jan 5 at 14:41


















            0












            $begingroup$

            Given the value of R2 (500 kohm) it will barely be loading the 100 ohm resistor (R3) and so, to obtain a gain of -120, a close approximation (given that R4 will need to be orders of magnitude greater than R3) is to choose a value for R4 that is 120 times R3. But, noting that R2 and R1 have a ratio of 0.5, the real value for R4 is close to 240 times that of R1 i.e. 24 kohm.




            Where is my mistake?




            I don't recognize your approach.



            You could do it more thoroughly by estimating the equivalent Thevenin source voltage and impedance produced by the op-amp output, R4 and R3 of course. Then recognize that the source impedance is in series with R2.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, why did you conclude that the ratio of R1 and R2 doubles the needed value of R4?
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:29










            • $begingroup$
              Because if R1 and R2 were equal (at say 1 Mohm), the attenuation brought about by R4 and R3 would only need to be 120:1 to obtain an overall gain of -120.
              $endgroup$
              – Andy aka
              Jan 5 at 14:41
















            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Given the value of R2 (500 kohm) it will barely be loading the 100 ohm resistor (R3) and so, to obtain a gain of -120, a close approximation (given that R4 will need to be orders of magnitude greater than R3) is to choose a value for R4 that is 120 times R3. But, noting that R2 and R1 have a ratio of 0.5, the real value for R4 is close to 240 times that of R1 i.e. 24 kohm.




            Where is my mistake?




            I don't recognize your approach.



            You could do it more thoroughly by estimating the equivalent Thevenin source voltage and impedance produced by the op-amp output, R4 and R3 of course. Then recognize that the source impedance is in series with R2.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Given the value of R2 (500 kohm) it will barely be loading the 100 ohm resistor (R3) and so, to obtain a gain of -120, a close approximation (given that R4 will need to be orders of magnitude greater than R3) is to choose a value for R4 that is 120 times R3. But, noting that R2 and R1 have a ratio of 0.5, the real value for R4 is close to 240 times that of R1 i.e. 24 kohm.




            Where is my mistake?




            I don't recognize your approach.



            You could do it more thoroughly by estimating the equivalent Thevenin source voltage and impedance produced by the op-amp output, R4 and R3 of course. Then recognize that the source impedance is in series with R2.







            share|improve this answer














            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited Jan 5 at 14:15

























            answered Jan 5 at 14:10









            Andy akaAndy aka

            240k11177410




            240k11177410












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, why did you conclude that the ratio of R1 and R2 doubles the needed value of R4?
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:29










            • $begingroup$
              Because if R1 and R2 were equal (at say 1 Mohm), the attenuation brought about by R4 and R3 would only need to be 120:1 to obtain an overall gain of -120.
              $endgroup$
              – Andy aka
              Jan 5 at 14:41




















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks, why did you conclude that the ratio of R1 and R2 doubles the needed value of R4?
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:29










            • $begingroup$
              Because if R1 and R2 were equal (at say 1 Mohm), the attenuation brought about by R4 and R3 would only need to be 120:1 to obtain an overall gain of -120.
              $endgroup$
              – Andy aka
              Jan 5 at 14:41


















            $begingroup$
            Thanks, why did you conclude that the ratio of R1 and R2 doubles the needed value of R4?
            $endgroup$
            – bp7070
            Jan 5 at 14:29




            $begingroup$
            Thanks, why did you conclude that the ratio of R1 and R2 doubles the needed value of R4?
            $endgroup$
            – bp7070
            Jan 5 at 14:29












            $begingroup$
            Because if R1 and R2 were equal (at say 1 Mohm), the attenuation brought about by R4 and R3 would only need to be 120:1 to obtain an overall gain of -120.
            $endgroup$
            – Andy aka
            Jan 5 at 14:41






            $begingroup$
            Because if R1 and R2 were equal (at say 1 Mohm), the attenuation brought about by R4 and R3 would only need to be 120:1 to obtain an overall gain of -120.
            $endgroup$
            – Andy aka
            Jan 5 at 14:41













            0












            $begingroup$

            Ok, time for idealized opamp rules.





            1. No current into opamp inputs




            So, all current that flows through R1 also has to flow through R2.




            (derivative rule) An opamp in negative feedback will coerce its inputs to take 0V difference.




            That means V⁻ will be 0V (GND potential).



            From that follows that the right hand side of R2 (where the other resistors attach) is at - (Vin/2), since R1 = 2 R2 (and the same current flows through both).



            Since the voltage across R3 is $V_text{node}=-frac12 V_text{in}$, the current through R3 is



            $$I_3 = frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}text,$$



            which leaves us with



            begin{align}
            I_4 &= I_text{in} - I_3\
            &= frac{V_text{in}}{mathrm R1} - frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}\
            &=V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}

            to flow through R4.



            That yields an output voltage of



            begin{align}
            V_text{out} &= V_text{node} + I_4cdot mathrm R_4\
            &=V_text{node} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= -frac12 V_text{in} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= V_text{in}left(frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12right)text.
            end{align}



            The gain is hence



            begin{align}
            frac{V_text{out}}{V_text{in}} &= frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12 \
            &overset != -120\
            -119.5 &= mathrm R4left(frac{1}{mathrm R1}+frac{1}{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}



            I must admit I can't find a non-negative solution for R4, so I must've gone wrong somewhere.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the explenation, as you said the voltage at the node between R3 and R4 is $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}$$. Using voltage devider: $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}=V_{out}frac{100}{R4+100}$$, while $$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$ gives the answer $$R4=23.9kOmega$$
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:58












            • $begingroup$
              hm, can't do the voltage divider here, since R3 isn't unloaded and the current might also go into R2
              $endgroup$
              – Marcus Müller
              Jan 5 at 16:16
















            0












            $begingroup$

            Ok, time for idealized opamp rules.





            1. No current into opamp inputs




            So, all current that flows through R1 also has to flow through R2.




            (derivative rule) An opamp in negative feedback will coerce its inputs to take 0V difference.




            That means V⁻ will be 0V (GND potential).



            From that follows that the right hand side of R2 (where the other resistors attach) is at - (Vin/2), since R1 = 2 R2 (and the same current flows through both).



            Since the voltage across R3 is $V_text{node}=-frac12 V_text{in}$, the current through R3 is



            $$I_3 = frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}text,$$



            which leaves us with



            begin{align}
            I_4 &= I_text{in} - I_3\
            &= frac{V_text{in}}{mathrm R1} - frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}\
            &=V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}

            to flow through R4.



            That yields an output voltage of



            begin{align}
            V_text{out} &= V_text{node} + I_4cdot mathrm R_4\
            &=V_text{node} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= -frac12 V_text{in} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= V_text{in}left(frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12right)text.
            end{align}



            The gain is hence



            begin{align}
            frac{V_text{out}}{V_text{in}} &= frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12 \
            &overset != -120\
            -119.5 &= mathrm R4left(frac{1}{mathrm R1}+frac{1}{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}



            I must admit I can't find a non-negative solution for R4, so I must've gone wrong somewhere.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the explenation, as you said the voltage at the node between R3 and R4 is $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}$$. Using voltage devider: $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}=V_{out}frac{100}{R4+100}$$, while $$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$ gives the answer $$R4=23.9kOmega$$
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:58












            • $begingroup$
              hm, can't do the voltage divider here, since R3 isn't unloaded and the current might also go into R2
              $endgroup$
              – Marcus Müller
              Jan 5 at 16:16














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Ok, time for idealized opamp rules.





            1. No current into opamp inputs




            So, all current that flows through R1 also has to flow through R2.




            (derivative rule) An opamp in negative feedback will coerce its inputs to take 0V difference.




            That means V⁻ will be 0V (GND potential).



            From that follows that the right hand side of R2 (where the other resistors attach) is at - (Vin/2), since R1 = 2 R2 (and the same current flows through both).



            Since the voltage across R3 is $V_text{node}=-frac12 V_text{in}$, the current through R3 is



            $$I_3 = frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}text,$$



            which leaves us with



            begin{align}
            I_4 &= I_text{in} - I_3\
            &= frac{V_text{in}}{mathrm R1} - frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}\
            &=V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}

            to flow through R4.



            That yields an output voltage of



            begin{align}
            V_text{out} &= V_text{node} + I_4cdot mathrm R_4\
            &=V_text{node} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= -frac12 V_text{in} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= V_text{in}left(frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12right)text.
            end{align}



            The gain is hence



            begin{align}
            frac{V_text{out}}{V_text{in}} &= frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12 \
            &overset != -120\
            -119.5 &= mathrm R4left(frac{1}{mathrm R1}+frac{1}{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}



            I must admit I can't find a non-negative solution for R4, so I must've gone wrong somewhere.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Ok, time for idealized opamp rules.





            1. No current into opamp inputs




            So, all current that flows through R1 also has to flow through R2.




            (derivative rule) An opamp in negative feedback will coerce its inputs to take 0V difference.




            That means V⁻ will be 0V (GND potential).



            From that follows that the right hand side of R2 (where the other resistors attach) is at - (Vin/2), since R1 = 2 R2 (and the same current flows through both).



            Since the voltage across R3 is $V_text{node}=-frac12 V_text{in}$, the current through R3 is



            $$I_3 = frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}text,$$



            which leaves us with



            begin{align}
            I_4 &= I_text{in} - I_3\
            &= frac{V_text{in}}{mathrm R1} - frac{-frac12 V_text{in}}{mathrm R3}\
            &=V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}

            to flow through R4.



            That yields an output voltage of



            begin{align}
            V_text{out} &= V_text{node} + I_4cdot mathrm R_4\
            &=V_text{node} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= -frac12 V_text{in} +V_text{in}left(frac1{mathrm R1}+frac1{2mathrm R3}right)cdot mathrm R_4\
            &= V_text{in}left(frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12right)text.
            end{align}



            The gain is hence



            begin{align}
            frac{V_text{out}}{V_text{in}} &= frac{mathrm R4}{mathrm R1}+frac{mathrm R4}{2mathrm R3} - frac12 \
            &overset != -120\
            -119.5 &= mathrm R4left(frac{1}{mathrm R1}+frac{1}{2mathrm R3}right)
            end{align}



            I must admit I can't find a non-negative solution for R4, so I must've gone wrong somewhere.







            share|improve this answer














            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited Jan 5 at 14:53

























            answered Jan 5 at 14:41









            Marcus MüllerMarcus Müller

            32.4k35894




            32.4k35894












            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the explenation, as you said the voltage at the node between R3 and R4 is $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}$$. Using voltage devider: $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}=V_{out}frac{100}{R4+100}$$, while $$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$ gives the answer $$R4=23.9kOmega$$
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:58












            • $begingroup$
              hm, can't do the voltage divider here, since R3 isn't unloaded and the current might also go into R2
              $endgroup$
              – Marcus Müller
              Jan 5 at 16:16


















            • $begingroup$
              Thanks for the explenation, as you said the voltage at the node between R3 and R4 is $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}$$. Using voltage devider: $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}=V_{out}frac{100}{R4+100}$$, while $$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$ gives the answer $$R4=23.9kOmega$$
              $endgroup$
              – bp7070
              Jan 5 at 14:58












            • $begingroup$
              hm, can't do the voltage divider here, since R3 isn't unloaded and the current might also go into R2
              $endgroup$
              – Marcus Müller
              Jan 5 at 16:16
















            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the explenation, as you said the voltage at the node between R3 and R4 is $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}$$. Using voltage devider: $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}=V_{out}frac{100}{R4+100}$$, while $$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$ gives the answer $$R4=23.9kOmega$$
            $endgroup$
            – bp7070
            Jan 5 at 14:58






            $begingroup$
            Thanks for the explenation, as you said the voltage at the node between R3 and R4 is $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}$$. Using voltage devider: $$-frac{V_{in}}{2}=V_{out}frac{100}{R4+100}$$, while $$frac{V_{out}}{V_{in}}=-120$$ gives the answer $$R4=23.9kOmega$$
            $endgroup$
            – bp7070
            Jan 5 at 14:58














            $begingroup$
            hm, can't do the voltage divider here, since R3 isn't unloaded and the current might also go into R2
            $endgroup$
            – Marcus Müller
            Jan 5 at 16:16




            $begingroup$
            hm, can't do the voltage divider here, since R3 isn't unloaded and the current might also go into R2
            $endgroup$
            – Marcus Müller
            Jan 5 at 16:16


















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