Is $x f(x,y)+y g(x,y)$ homogeneous if f and g homogeneous? [closed]












-1












$begingroup$


If $f_{1}(x,y)$ and $f_{2}(x,y)$ are two homogeneous polynomials then prove that :





1



$frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous.





2



Can i replace the denominator part by anyother homogeneous polynomial? Will it be homogeneous then ?
Say
$f_{3}(x,y)$ be another homogeneous polynomials then what about $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{f_{3}(x,y)}$ ?













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closed as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown Dec 31 '18 at 8:09


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown

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    I do not understand why people are downgrading with out any proper reason !
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    – NewBornMATH
    Dec 31 '18 at 7:43
















-1












$begingroup$


If $f_{1}(x,y)$ and $f_{2}(x,y)$ are two homogeneous polynomials then prove that :





1



$frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous.





2



Can i replace the denominator part by anyother homogeneous polynomial? Will it be homogeneous then ?
Say
$f_{3}(x,y)$ be another homogeneous polynomials then what about $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{f_{3}(x,y)}$ ?













share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown Dec 31 '18 at 8:09


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • $begingroup$
    I do not understand why people are downgrading with out any proper reason !
    $endgroup$
    – NewBornMATH
    Dec 31 '18 at 7:43














-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$


If $f_{1}(x,y)$ and $f_{2}(x,y)$ are two homogeneous polynomials then prove that :





1



$frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous.





2



Can i replace the denominator part by anyother homogeneous polynomial? Will it be homogeneous then ?
Say
$f_{3}(x,y)$ be another homogeneous polynomials then what about $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{f_{3}(x,y)}$ ?













share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If $f_{1}(x,y)$ and $f_{2}(x,y)$ are two homogeneous polynomials then prove that :





1



$frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous.





2



Can i replace the denominator part by anyother homogeneous polynomial? Will it be homogeneous then ?
Say
$f_{3}(x,y)$ be another homogeneous polynomials then what about $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{f_{3}(x,y)}$ ?










algebra-precalculus polynomials






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edited Dec 31 '18 at 6:38







M Desmond

















asked Dec 31 '18 at 6:29









M DesmondM Desmond

946




946




closed as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown Dec 31 '18 at 8:09


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown Dec 31 '18 at 8:09


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Eevee Trainer, Kavi Rama Murthy, Martín Vacas Vignolo, Calvin Khor, Lord Shark the Unknown

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • $begingroup$
    I do not understand why people are downgrading with out any proper reason !
    $endgroup$
    – NewBornMATH
    Dec 31 '18 at 7:43


















  • $begingroup$
    I do not understand why people are downgrading with out any proper reason !
    $endgroup$
    – NewBornMATH
    Dec 31 '18 at 7:43
















$begingroup$
I do not understand why people are downgrading with out any proper reason !
$endgroup$
– NewBornMATH
Dec 31 '18 at 7:43




$begingroup$
I do not understand why people are downgrading with out any proper reason !
$endgroup$
– NewBornMATH
Dec 31 '18 at 7:43










1 Answer
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2












$begingroup$

A function $h( mathbf x)$, where $mathbf x=(x_1,x_2,...,x_n)$ is said to be homogeneous of degree $k$ if



$$h( lambda mathbf x)=lambda^k h( mathbf x)$$



for all $lambda in Bbb R.$



Even though $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous, their sum will, in general, not be homogeneous, because their degree of homogeneity need not be the same



$$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y) neq lambda^k[f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



Of course, if it happens that their degree of homogeneity is the same, then $k_1=k_2=k$ and



$$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k} f_2(x,y)=lambda^{k} [f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



Therefore,



$frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous if the degree of homogeneity of $f_{i}(x,y)$ is the same for all $i$.



And you can replace the denominator part by any other homogeneous polynomial. In this case, the degree of homogeneity does not matter, because (assuming again that
$f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous), we have that



$$frac{f_1(lambda x, lambda y)}{f_2(lambda x,lambda y)}=frac{lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)}{lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y)}=lambda^{k_1-k_2}frac{f_1(x,y)}{f_2(x,y)}.$$






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    A function $h( mathbf x)$, where $mathbf x=(x_1,x_2,...,x_n)$ is said to be homogeneous of degree $k$ if



    $$h( lambda mathbf x)=lambda^k h( mathbf x)$$



    for all $lambda in Bbb R.$



    Even though $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous, their sum will, in general, not be homogeneous, because their degree of homogeneity need not be the same



    $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y) neq lambda^k[f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



    Of course, if it happens that their degree of homogeneity is the same, then $k_1=k_2=k$ and



    $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k} f_2(x,y)=lambda^{k} [f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



    Therefore,



    $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous if the degree of homogeneity of $f_{i}(x,y)$ is the same for all $i$.



    And you can replace the denominator part by any other homogeneous polynomial. In this case, the degree of homogeneity does not matter, because (assuming again that
    $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous), we have that



    $$frac{f_1(lambda x, lambda y)}{f_2(lambda x,lambda y)}=frac{lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)}{lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y)}=lambda^{k_1-k_2}frac{f_1(x,y)}{f_2(x,y)}.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      A function $h( mathbf x)$, where $mathbf x=(x_1,x_2,...,x_n)$ is said to be homogeneous of degree $k$ if



      $$h( lambda mathbf x)=lambda^k h( mathbf x)$$



      for all $lambda in Bbb R.$



      Even though $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous, their sum will, in general, not be homogeneous, because their degree of homogeneity need not be the same



      $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y) neq lambda^k[f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



      Of course, if it happens that their degree of homogeneity is the same, then $k_1=k_2=k$ and



      $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k} f_2(x,y)=lambda^{k} [f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



      Therefore,



      $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous if the degree of homogeneity of $f_{i}(x,y)$ is the same for all $i$.



      And you can replace the denominator part by any other homogeneous polynomial. In this case, the degree of homogeneity does not matter, because (assuming again that
      $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous), we have that



      $$frac{f_1(lambda x, lambda y)}{f_2(lambda x,lambda y)}=frac{lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)}{lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y)}=lambda^{k_1-k_2}frac{f_1(x,y)}{f_2(x,y)}.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        A function $h( mathbf x)$, where $mathbf x=(x_1,x_2,...,x_n)$ is said to be homogeneous of degree $k$ if



        $$h( lambda mathbf x)=lambda^k h( mathbf x)$$



        for all $lambda in Bbb R.$



        Even though $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous, their sum will, in general, not be homogeneous, because their degree of homogeneity need not be the same



        $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y) neq lambda^k[f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



        Of course, if it happens that their degree of homogeneity is the same, then $k_1=k_2=k$ and



        $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k} f_2(x,y)=lambda^{k} [f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



        Therefore,



        $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous if the degree of homogeneity of $f_{i}(x,y)$ is the same for all $i$.



        And you can replace the denominator part by any other homogeneous polynomial. In this case, the degree of homogeneity does not matter, because (assuming again that
        $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous), we have that



        $$frac{f_1(lambda x, lambda y)}{f_2(lambda x,lambda y)}=frac{lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)}{lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y)}=lambda^{k_1-k_2}frac{f_1(x,y)}{f_2(x,y)}.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        A function $h( mathbf x)$, where $mathbf x=(x_1,x_2,...,x_n)$ is said to be homogeneous of degree $k$ if



        $$h( lambda mathbf x)=lambda^k h( mathbf x)$$



        for all $lambda in Bbb R.$



        Even though $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous, their sum will, in general, not be homogeneous, because their degree of homogeneity need not be the same



        $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y) neq lambda^k[f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



        Of course, if it happens that their degree of homogeneity is the same, then $k_1=k_2=k$ and



        $$f_1(lambda x, lambda y)+f_2(lambda x,lambda y)=lambda^{k} f_1(x,y)+lambda^{k} f_2(x,y)=lambda^{k} [f_1(x,y)+f_2(x,y)].$$



        Therefore,



        $frac{f_{1}(x,y)+f_{2}(x,y)}{xf_{1}(x,y)+yf_{2}(x,y)}$ is homogeneous if the degree of homogeneity of $f_{i}(x,y)$ is the same for all $i$.



        And you can replace the denominator part by any other homogeneous polynomial. In this case, the degree of homogeneity does not matter, because (assuming again that
        $f_1(x,y)$ and $f_2(x,y)$ are both homogeneous), we have that



        $$frac{f_1(lambda x, lambda y)}{f_2(lambda x,lambda y)}=frac{lambda^{k_1} f_1(x,y)}{lambda^{k_2} f_2(x,y)}=lambda^{k_1-k_2}frac{f_1(x,y)}{f_2(x,y)}.$$







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        edited Dec 31 '18 at 7:31

























        answered Dec 31 '18 at 7:21









        PatricioPatricio

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        2916















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