Notation and absolute continuity for probability measures












1












$begingroup$


A Question on Notation:



I've realized that different notations are used in probability theory when evaluating an integral, and I am unsure as to how they "work" together, whether they're completely equiavalent or whether they do have subtle difference, and in which situations they should be used.



Let $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ be a probability space and $X$ a real random variable that describes the distribution with pdf $f$.



We are told that



$mathbb E[X]=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$



and



$mathbb E[X]=int_{Omega}XdP$



but that



$int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$ only if $P_{X}$ is absolute continuous w.r.t $P$



Can anyone elaborate on this further. It still does not sit well with me.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    A Question on Notation:



    I've realized that different notations are used in probability theory when evaluating an integral, and I am unsure as to how they "work" together, whether they're completely equiavalent or whether they do have subtle difference, and in which situations they should be used.



    Let $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ be a probability space and $X$ a real random variable that describes the distribution with pdf $f$.



    We are told that



    $mathbb E[X]=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$



    and



    $mathbb E[X]=int_{Omega}XdP$



    but that



    $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$ only if $P_{X}$ is absolute continuous w.r.t $P$



    Can anyone elaborate on this further. It still does not sit well with me.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      A Question on Notation:



      I've realized that different notations are used in probability theory when evaluating an integral, and I am unsure as to how they "work" together, whether they're completely equiavalent or whether they do have subtle difference, and in which situations they should be used.



      Let $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ be a probability space and $X$ a real random variable that describes the distribution with pdf $f$.



      We are told that



      $mathbb E[X]=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$



      and



      $mathbb E[X]=int_{Omega}XdP$



      but that



      $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$ only if $P_{X}$ is absolute continuous w.r.t $P$



      Can anyone elaborate on this further. It still does not sit well with me.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      A Question on Notation:



      I've realized that different notations are used in probability theory when evaluating an integral, and I am unsure as to how they "work" together, whether they're completely equiavalent or whether they do have subtle difference, and in which situations they should be used.



      Let $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ be a probability space and $X$ a real random variable that describes the distribution with pdf $f$.



      We are told that



      $mathbb E[X]=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$



      and



      $mathbb E[X]=int_{Omega}XdP$



      but that



      $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xf(x)dx$ only if $P_{X}$ is absolute continuous w.r.t $P$



      Can anyone elaborate on this further. It still does not sit well with me.







      probability probability-theory measure-theory expected-value






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 14 at 14:51









      SABOYSABOY

      679311




      679311






















          1 Answer
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          2












          $begingroup$

          The definition of the expectation of random variable $X$ is (if it exists):$$mathbb EX=int X;dPtag1$$so is an integral on the original probability space.



          A random variable $X$ induces a probability measure on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ where $mathcal B$ denotes the $sigma$-algebra of Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          This probability measure is often denoted as $P_X$ and it is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({Xin B})$$



          A new probability space is introduced now: $(mathbb R,mathcal B,P_X)$.



          Further there is a theorem that says that:$$int X;dP=int x;dP_Xtag2$$



          For a probability measure $mu$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ there might exist a non-negative Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ that satisfies:$$int_Bf(x)dx=mu(B)$$



          If this is the case then it can be proved that:$$int g(x)f(x);dx=int g(x);dmutag3$$for suitable functions $g$.



          If for $P_X$ such a function exists then the function serves a so-called PDF (probability density function) and is mostly denoted as $f_X$.



          Application of $(2),(3)$ on the identity function then results in:$$int g(x)f_X(x);dx=int g(x);dP_X=int g(X);dP$$



          Doing this for the identity function gives:$$int xf_X(x);dx=int x;dP_X=int X;dP=mathbb EX$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Just to make sure In your statement $(1)$ it would be $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xdP_{x}$ , correct?
            $endgroup$
            – SABOY
            Jan 14 at 16:12












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that's correct. You are welcome.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 14 at 16:35











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          The definition of the expectation of random variable $X$ is (if it exists):$$mathbb EX=int X;dPtag1$$so is an integral on the original probability space.



          A random variable $X$ induces a probability measure on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ where $mathcal B$ denotes the $sigma$-algebra of Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          This probability measure is often denoted as $P_X$ and it is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({Xin B})$$



          A new probability space is introduced now: $(mathbb R,mathcal B,P_X)$.



          Further there is a theorem that says that:$$int X;dP=int x;dP_Xtag2$$



          For a probability measure $mu$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ there might exist a non-negative Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ that satisfies:$$int_Bf(x)dx=mu(B)$$



          If this is the case then it can be proved that:$$int g(x)f(x);dx=int g(x);dmutag3$$for suitable functions $g$.



          If for $P_X$ such a function exists then the function serves a so-called PDF (probability density function) and is mostly denoted as $f_X$.



          Application of $(2),(3)$ on the identity function then results in:$$int g(x)f_X(x);dx=int g(x);dP_X=int g(X);dP$$



          Doing this for the identity function gives:$$int xf_X(x);dx=int x;dP_X=int X;dP=mathbb EX$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Just to make sure In your statement $(1)$ it would be $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xdP_{x}$ , correct?
            $endgroup$
            – SABOY
            Jan 14 at 16:12












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that's correct. You are welcome.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 14 at 16:35
















          2












          $begingroup$

          The definition of the expectation of random variable $X$ is (if it exists):$$mathbb EX=int X;dPtag1$$so is an integral on the original probability space.



          A random variable $X$ induces a probability measure on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ where $mathcal B$ denotes the $sigma$-algebra of Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          This probability measure is often denoted as $P_X$ and it is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({Xin B})$$



          A new probability space is introduced now: $(mathbb R,mathcal B,P_X)$.



          Further there is a theorem that says that:$$int X;dP=int x;dP_Xtag2$$



          For a probability measure $mu$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ there might exist a non-negative Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ that satisfies:$$int_Bf(x)dx=mu(B)$$



          If this is the case then it can be proved that:$$int g(x)f(x);dx=int g(x);dmutag3$$for suitable functions $g$.



          If for $P_X$ such a function exists then the function serves a so-called PDF (probability density function) and is mostly denoted as $f_X$.



          Application of $(2),(3)$ on the identity function then results in:$$int g(x)f_X(x);dx=int g(x);dP_X=int g(X);dP$$



          Doing this for the identity function gives:$$int xf_X(x);dx=int x;dP_X=int X;dP=mathbb EX$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Just to make sure In your statement $(1)$ it would be $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xdP_{x}$ , correct?
            $endgroup$
            – SABOY
            Jan 14 at 16:12












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that's correct. You are welcome.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 14 at 16:35














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          The definition of the expectation of random variable $X$ is (if it exists):$$mathbb EX=int X;dPtag1$$so is an integral on the original probability space.



          A random variable $X$ induces a probability measure on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ where $mathcal B$ denotes the $sigma$-algebra of Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          This probability measure is often denoted as $P_X$ and it is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({Xin B})$$



          A new probability space is introduced now: $(mathbb R,mathcal B,P_X)$.



          Further there is a theorem that says that:$$int X;dP=int x;dP_Xtag2$$



          For a probability measure $mu$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ there might exist a non-negative Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ that satisfies:$$int_Bf(x)dx=mu(B)$$



          If this is the case then it can be proved that:$$int g(x)f(x);dx=int g(x);dmutag3$$for suitable functions $g$.



          If for $P_X$ such a function exists then the function serves a so-called PDF (probability density function) and is mostly denoted as $f_X$.



          Application of $(2),(3)$ on the identity function then results in:$$int g(x)f_X(x);dx=int g(x);dP_X=int g(X);dP$$



          Doing this for the identity function gives:$$int xf_X(x);dx=int x;dP_X=int X;dP=mathbb EX$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The definition of the expectation of random variable $X$ is (if it exists):$$mathbb EX=int X;dPtag1$$so is an integral on the original probability space.



          A random variable $X$ induces a probability measure on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ where $mathcal B$ denotes the $sigma$-algebra of Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          This probability measure is often denoted as $P_X$ and it is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({Xin B})$$



          A new probability space is introduced now: $(mathbb R,mathcal B,P_X)$.



          Further there is a theorem that says that:$$int X;dP=int x;dP_Xtag2$$



          For a probability measure $mu$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ there might exist a non-negative Borel-measurable function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ that satisfies:$$int_Bf(x)dx=mu(B)$$



          If this is the case then it can be proved that:$$int g(x)f(x);dx=int g(x);dmutag3$$for suitable functions $g$.



          If for $P_X$ such a function exists then the function serves a so-called PDF (probability density function) and is mostly denoted as $f_X$.



          Application of $(2),(3)$ on the identity function then results in:$$int g(x)f_X(x);dx=int g(x);dP_X=int g(X);dP$$



          Doing this for the identity function gives:$$int xf_X(x);dx=int x;dP_X=int X;dP=mathbb EX$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 14 at 15:31









          drhabdrhab

          103k545136




          103k545136












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Just to make sure In your statement $(1)$ it would be $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xdP_{x}$ , correct?
            $endgroup$
            – SABOY
            Jan 14 at 16:12












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that's correct. You are welcome.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 14 at 16:35


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Just to make sure In your statement $(1)$ it would be $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xdP_{x}$ , correct?
            $endgroup$
            – SABOY
            Jan 14 at 16:12












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that's correct. You are welcome.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 14 at 16:35
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you! Just to make sure In your statement $(1)$ it would be $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xdP_{x}$ , correct?
          $endgroup$
          – SABOY
          Jan 14 at 16:12






          $begingroup$
          Thank you! Just to make sure In your statement $(1)$ it would be $int_{Omega}XdP=int_{mathbb R}xdP_{x}$ , correct?
          $endgroup$
          – SABOY
          Jan 14 at 16:12














          $begingroup$
          Yes, that's correct. You are welcome.
          $endgroup$
          – drhab
          Jan 14 at 16:35




          $begingroup$
          Yes, that's correct. You are welcome.
          $endgroup$
          – drhab
          Jan 14 at 16:35


















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