$S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1}$












9












$begingroup$


I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.



This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:




If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.



This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:13










  • $begingroup$
    A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:16










  • $begingroup$
    @BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Auld
    May 17 '15 at 8:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:22












  • $begingroup$
    You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:23
















9












$begingroup$


I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.



This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:




If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.



This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:13










  • $begingroup$
    A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:16










  • $begingroup$
    @BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Auld
    May 17 '15 at 8:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:22












  • $begingroup$
    You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:23














9












9








9


4



$begingroup$


I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.



This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:




If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.



This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.



This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:




If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.



This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.








algebraic-topology






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:58









Community

1




1










asked May 17 '15 at 7:56









Eric AuldEric Auld

13.3k433112




13.3k433112












  • $begingroup$
    The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:13










  • $begingroup$
    A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:16










  • $begingroup$
    @BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Auld
    May 17 '15 at 8:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:22












  • $begingroup$
    You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:23


















  • $begingroup$
    The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:13










  • $begingroup$
    A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:16










  • $begingroup$
    @BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Auld
    May 17 '15 at 8:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:22












  • $begingroup$
    You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    May 17 '15 at 8:23
















$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13




$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13












$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16




$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16












$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18




$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18




1




1




$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22






$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22














$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23




$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$



In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to



$$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$



Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    @Prism Corrected, thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    Jun 18 '15 at 6:16










  • $begingroup$
    What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
    $endgroup$
    – Tanner Strunk
    Sep 20 '16 at 19:46










  • $begingroup$
    I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
    $endgroup$
    – Tanner Strunk
    Sep 20 '16 at 19:48



















1












$begingroup$

Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map



$$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$



by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.



    One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.



    A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
    $$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$



    This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$





















      0












      $begingroup$

      Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
      $$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$



      Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
      For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
      Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .



      Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

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        active

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        active

        oldest

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        2












        $begingroup$

        $S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$



        In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to



        $$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$



        Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          @Prism Corrected, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Balarka Sen
          Jun 18 '15 at 6:16










        • $begingroup$
          What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:46










        • $begingroup$
          I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
















        2












        $begingroup$

        $S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$



        In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to



        $$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$



        Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          @Prism Corrected, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Balarka Sen
          Jun 18 '15 at 6:16










        • $begingroup$
          What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:46










        • $begingroup$
          I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:48














        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        $S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$



        In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to



        $$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$



        Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        $S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$



        In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to



        $$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$



        Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jun 18 '15 at 6:16

























        answered May 18 '15 at 8:19









        Balarka SenBalarka Sen

        10.2k13056




        10.2k13056












        • $begingroup$
          @Prism Corrected, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Balarka Sen
          Jun 18 '15 at 6:16










        • $begingroup$
          What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:46










        • $begingroup$
          I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:48


















        • $begingroup$
          @Prism Corrected, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Balarka Sen
          Jun 18 '15 at 6:16










        • $begingroup$
          What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:46










        • $begingroup$
          I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
          $endgroup$
          – Tanner Strunk
          Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
















        $begingroup$
        @Prism Corrected, thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Balarka Sen
        Jun 18 '15 at 6:16




        $begingroup$
        @Prism Corrected, thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Balarka Sen
        Jun 18 '15 at 6:16












        $begingroup$
        What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Strunk
        Sep 20 '16 at 19:46




        $begingroup$
        What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Strunk
        Sep 20 '16 at 19:46












        $begingroup$
        I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Strunk
        Sep 20 '16 at 19:48




        $begingroup$
        I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Strunk
        Sep 20 '16 at 19:48











        1












        $begingroup$

        Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map



        $$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$



        by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map



          $$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$



          by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map



            $$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$



            by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map



            $$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$



            by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited May 18 '15 at 21:01

























            answered May 17 '15 at 8:30







            user99914






























                1












                $begingroup$

                There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.



                One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.



                A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
                $$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$



                This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$


















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.



                  One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.



                  A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
                  $$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$



                  This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$
















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.



                    One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.



                    A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
                    $$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$



                    This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.



                    One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.



                    A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
                    $$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$



                    This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20









                    Community

                    1




                    1










                    answered May 18 '15 at 21:37









                    Ronnie BrownRonnie Brown

                    12.1k12939




                    12.1k12939























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
                        $$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$



                        Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
                        For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
                        Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .



                        Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
                          $$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$



                          Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
                          For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
                          Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .



                          Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
                            $$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$



                            Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
                            For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
                            Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .



                            Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
                            $$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$



                            Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
                            For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
                            Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .



                            Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 14 at 12:24









                            reflexivereflexive

                            1,174624




                            1,174624






























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