$S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1}$
$begingroup$
I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.
This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:
If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.
This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.
algebraic-topology
$endgroup$
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.
This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:
If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.
This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.
algebraic-topology
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13
$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18
1
$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22
$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.
This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:
If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.
This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.
algebraic-topology
$endgroup$
I'm interested in showing that $S^m * S^n approx S^{m+n+1} $, as discussed in exercise 0.18 of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology. One way to show it would be to show that $X * Y approx Sigma(X wedge Y)$. This fact shows up only in a later exercise in the chapter, so I have to think he's looking for something else.
This, this, and this question allude to answers. In particular, there is this answer, which I don't understand:
If $A$ and $B$ are subsets of $mathbb R^n$ then you can map $Atimes Itimes B$ to $mathbb R^n$ by
$(a,t,b)mapsto (1−t)a+tb$. If the resulting continuous map $A∗Bto mathbb R^n$ happens to
be one to one then you can ask whether it gives a homeomorphism to its
image. If $A$ and $B$ are compact, then the answer is necessarily yes,
since a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
is always a homeomorphism.
This suffices to see that the join of spheres is a sphere.
algebraic-topology
algebraic-topology
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:58
Community♦
1
1
asked May 17 '15 at 7:56
Eric AuldEric Auld
13.3k433112
13.3k433112
$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13
$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18
1
$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22
$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13
$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18
1
$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22
$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23
$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13
$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13
$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16
$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18
$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18
1
1
$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22
$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22
$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23
$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23
|
show 2 more comments
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$
In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to
$$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$
Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@Prism Corrected, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
$begingroup$
What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:46
$begingroup$
I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map
$$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$
by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.
One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.
A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
$$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$
This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
$$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$
Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .
Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!
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add a comment |
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4 Answers
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4 Answers
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$begingroup$
$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$
In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to
$$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$
Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@Prism Corrected, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
$begingroup$
What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:46
$begingroup$
I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$
In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to
$$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$
Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@Prism Corrected, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
$begingroup$
What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:46
$begingroup$
I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$
In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to
$$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$
Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$
$endgroup$
$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1])/sim$ where $sim$ identifies the top $S^m times S^n times {0}$ to $S^m$ and the bottom $S^m times S^n times {1}$ to $S^n$. Cutting this in half gives $$S^m * S^n = (S^m times S^n times [0, 1/2])/!!sim cup_{S^m times S^n times {1/2}}; (S^m times S^n times [1/2, 1])/!!sim$$
In the first piece, $sim$ does nothing except pinching the copy of $S^m times {0}$ to a point. Thus, the first piece is homeomorphic to $C(S^m) times S^n cong D^{m+1} times S^n$. Similarly, $sim$ just pinches the copy of $S^n times {0}$ in the second piece, so that one is homeomorphic to $S^m times C(S^n) cong S^m times D^{n+1}$. So the space is homeomorphic to
$$D^{m+1} times S^n cup_{S^m times S^n} S^m times D^{n+1} cong D^{m+1} times partial(D^{n+1}) cup_partial partial(D^{m+1}) times D^{n+1} \ ;;;;;;;;;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+1} times D^{n+1}) \ ;;;;;; cong partial(D^{m+n+2})$$
Which is just $S^{m+n+1}$ $blacksquare$
edited Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
answered May 18 '15 at 8:19
Balarka SenBalarka Sen
10.2k13056
10.2k13056
$begingroup$
@Prism Corrected, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
$begingroup$
What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:46
$begingroup$
I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
@Prism Corrected, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
$begingroup$
What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:46
$begingroup$
I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
$begingroup$
@Prism Corrected, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
$begingroup$
@Prism Corrected, thanks!
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jun 18 '15 at 6:16
$begingroup$
What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:46
$begingroup$
What is $cup_{S^mtimes S^n}$ supposed to mean here?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:46
$begingroup$
I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
$begingroup$
I'm guessing it' the disjoint union?
$endgroup$
– Tanner Strunk
Sep 20 '16 at 19:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map
$$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$
by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map
$$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$
by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map
$$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$
by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)
$endgroup$
Let $S^n subset mathbb R^{n+1}$ and $S^msubset mathbb R^{m+1}$, then we can consider that they are both in $mathbb R^{n+m+2} cong mathbb R^{n+1} oplus mathbb R^{m+1}$. Then define the map
$$ phi : mathbb S^n times [0,pi/2] times mathbb S^m to S^{n+m+1} subset mathbb R^{n+m+2}$$
by $phi(a, t, b) = (cos t) a + (sin t) b$. This map descend to the quotient (still call) $phi :S^n *S^m to S^{n+m+1}$, which is bijective. Then as the domain is compact and the image is Hausdorff, $phi$ is a homeomorphism. (This is essentially the idea given in your question)
edited May 18 '15 at 21:01
answered May 17 '15 at 8:30
user99914
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.
One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.
A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
$$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$
This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.
One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.
A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
$$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$
This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.
One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.
A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
$$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$
This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.
$endgroup$
There are other ways of defining the join $X=X_1*X_2$ with a topology. In Topology and Groupoids, Chapter 5, the analogy is taken with the join of two subsets of a high dimensional $mathbb R^n$ by saying a point of the join is a formal sum $r_1x_1+r_2x_2$ where $x_i in X_i$ and $r_1+r_2=1, r_1,r_2 in [0,1]$, except that if $r_1$ or $r_2$ is $0$ then we ignore that term. There are partial functions $xi_i:X to [0,1], eta_i:X to X_i$ defined by $r_1x_1+r_2x_2 mapsto r_i, r_1x_1 +r_2x_2 mapsto x_i$, respectively. Here $eta_i$ has domain $xi_i^{-1}(0,1]$ . We give $X$ the initial topology with respect to these functions.
One advantage of using initial topologies here is that the join becomes associative.
A homeomorphism $S^p * S^q to S^{p+q+1}$ is defined by
$$rx+sy mapsto (xsin rpi /2, y sin spi /2). $$
This is related to this stackexchange answer and picture.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20
Community♦
1
1
answered May 18 '15 at 21:37
Ronnie BrownRonnie Brown
12.1k12939
12.1k12939
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
$$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$
Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .
Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
$$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$
Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .
Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
$$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$
Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .
Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!
$endgroup$
Consider $phi : S^n times S^m times [0,1] to S^{n+m+1}$ defined by,
$$phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),t)=(sqrt{1-t})x_0,dots(sqrt{1-t})x_n,sqrt{t}y_0,dots,sqrt{t}y_m)$$
Then it is easy to check that $phi$ is Continuous , onto and fails to be one-one precisely at $S^n times S^m times {0}$ and $S^n times S^m times {1}$ .
For $t=0$, $phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(y_0,dots,y_m),0)=(x_0,dots ,x_n,0,dots,0)=phi((x_0,dots,x_n),(tilde{y_0},dots,tilde{y_m}),0)$
Thus, $S^n times S^m times {0}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^n$ and similarly, $S^n times S^m times {1}$ is 'collapsed' to $S^m$ .
Now, invoking Universal Property of Quotient, we get an onto,continuous map $ bar{phi} : S^n * S^m to S^{n+m+1}$ which is clearly one-one and thus $bar{phi}$ is a continuous bijection from a Compact space to a Hausdorff space and thus it turns out to be a homeomorphism!
answered Jan 14 at 12:24
reflexivereflexive
1,174624
1,174624
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The trick is to show this for $S^1 * S^1$ : this is the identification space $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times [0, 1]/sim, sim'$, where $sim$ collapses $[0, 1] times [0, 1]times {0}$ to the first copy of $[0, 1]$ and $[0, 1]times[0,1]times{1}$ to the second copy of $[0, 1]$, and $sim'$ are the identifications on $[0, 1] times [0, 1] times {x}$ for each $x$ given by pasting opposite edges in the same orientation (such that it results in a torus). This is easily seen to be the identification space of a tetrahedra, with opposite sides sharing an edge identified.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:13
$begingroup$
A bit of cutting pasting shows that this is just two solid torii identified through the boundary torus. This is $S^3$. Now try to generalize this argument for $S^m * S^n$.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:16
$begingroup$
@BalarkaSen Why is that $S^3$? I've seen that line of argument showing up, but searching for "Clifford Torus" didn't yield an explanation
$endgroup$
– Eric Auld
May 17 '15 at 8:18
1
$begingroup$
Right, it's a bit tricky there. I have two proofs, one is visual : Consider a solid torus in $Bbb R^3$. Complement of this is something very close to a solid torus. One-point compactification of this is indeed a solid torus (you can prove this rigorously : left as an exercise). Thus, one-pt cptfication of $Bbb R^3$ (which is $S^3$) decomposes into two solid torii pasted through the boundary torus. For a rigorous proof : $S^3 = partial(D^4) = partial(D^2 times D^2) = D^2 times partial D^2 cup_{partial} partial D^2 times D^2$, which is precisely what you want.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:22
$begingroup$
You should note that the identifications at the boundary are not arbitrary : the longitudinal circles of one is pasted to the latitudal ones of the other. You should verify all this, though.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
May 17 '15 at 8:23