Does the matrix norm inequality or the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality hold for L2,1 norms












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I read here https://statweb.stanford.edu/~souravc/Lecture32.pdf that Cauchy-Schwarz inequality holds for the Hilbert-Schmit or Frobenius norms. I wanted to know if the same holds for other norms too specifically the L2,1 norm.










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    I don't know the L2,1-norm, but the CSI holds for all norms which are induced by a scalar product. So when you know, that it is induced by a scalar product, the CSI holds for it.
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    – Student7
    Jan 9 at 13:17
















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$begingroup$


I read here https://statweb.stanford.edu/~souravc/Lecture32.pdf that Cauchy-Schwarz inequality holds for the Hilbert-Schmit or Frobenius norms. I wanted to know if the same holds for other norms too specifically the L2,1 norm.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I don't know the L2,1-norm, but the CSI holds for all norms which are induced by a scalar product. So when you know, that it is induced by a scalar product, the CSI holds for it.
    $endgroup$
    – Student7
    Jan 9 at 13:17














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I read here https://statweb.stanford.edu/~souravc/Lecture32.pdf that Cauchy-Schwarz inequality holds for the Hilbert-Schmit or Frobenius norms. I wanted to know if the same holds for other norms too specifically the L2,1 norm.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I read here https://statweb.stanford.edu/~souravc/Lecture32.pdf that Cauchy-Schwarz inequality holds for the Hilbert-Schmit or Frobenius norms. I wanted to know if the same holds for other norms too specifically the L2,1 norm.







matrices norm cauchy-schwarz-inequality






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asked Jan 9 at 12:14









S. NagS. Nag

1




1












  • $begingroup$
    I don't know the L2,1-norm, but the CSI holds for all norms which are induced by a scalar product. So when you know, that it is induced by a scalar product, the CSI holds for it.
    $endgroup$
    – Student7
    Jan 9 at 13:17


















  • $begingroup$
    I don't know the L2,1-norm, but the CSI holds for all norms which are induced by a scalar product. So when you know, that it is induced by a scalar product, the CSI holds for it.
    $endgroup$
    – Student7
    Jan 9 at 13:17
















$begingroup$
I don't know the L2,1-norm, but the CSI holds for all norms which are induced by a scalar product. So when you know, that it is induced by a scalar product, the CSI holds for it.
$endgroup$
– Student7
Jan 9 at 13:17




$begingroup$
I don't know the L2,1-norm, but the CSI holds for all norms which are induced by a scalar product. So when you know, that it is induced by a scalar product, the CSI holds for it.
$endgroup$
– Student7
Jan 9 at 13:17










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Since both Hilbert-Schmidt norm and $L^2$-norm arise from an inner product (more generally, semi-inner product), Cauchy-Schwarz holds in those cases. But if we consider $L^p([0,1])$, $pneq 2$ for example, there does not exist an inner product to apply Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, because $L^p$-norm does not satisfy the parallelogram law
$$
|x+y|_p^2+|x-y|_p^2 = 2(|x|_p^2+|y|_p^2),
$$
which should be true for all norms obtained from an inner product.






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    $begingroup$

    Since both Hilbert-Schmidt norm and $L^2$-norm arise from an inner product (more generally, semi-inner product), Cauchy-Schwarz holds in those cases. But if we consider $L^p([0,1])$, $pneq 2$ for example, there does not exist an inner product to apply Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, because $L^p$-norm does not satisfy the parallelogram law
    $$
    |x+y|_p^2+|x-y|_p^2 = 2(|x|_p^2+|y|_p^2),
    $$
    which should be true for all norms obtained from an inner product.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      0












      $begingroup$

      Since both Hilbert-Schmidt norm and $L^2$-norm arise from an inner product (more generally, semi-inner product), Cauchy-Schwarz holds in those cases. But if we consider $L^p([0,1])$, $pneq 2$ for example, there does not exist an inner product to apply Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, because $L^p$-norm does not satisfy the parallelogram law
      $$
      |x+y|_p^2+|x-y|_p^2 = 2(|x|_p^2+|y|_p^2),
      $$
      which should be true for all norms obtained from an inner product.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















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        0





        $begingroup$

        Since both Hilbert-Schmidt norm and $L^2$-norm arise from an inner product (more generally, semi-inner product), Cauchy-Schwarz holds in those cases. But if we consider $L^p([0,1])$, $pneq 2$ for example, there does not exist an inner product to apply Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, because $L^p$-norm does not satisfy the parallelogram law
        $$
        |x+y|_p^2+|x-y|_p^2 = 2(|x|_p^2+|y|_p^2),
        $$
        which should be true for all norms obtained from an inner product.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Since both Hilbert-Schmidt norm and $L^2$-norm arise from an inner product (more generally, semi-inner product), Cauchy-Schwarz holds in those cases. But if we consider $L^p([0,1])$, $pneq 2$ for example, there does not exist an inner product to apply Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, because $L^p$-norm does not satisfy the parallelogram law
        $$
        |x+y|_p^2+|x-y|_p^2 = 2(|x|_p^2+|y|_p^2),
        $$
        which should be true for all norms obtained from an inner product.







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        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 9 at 13:31









        SongSong

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        15.1k1636






























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