How good is this bound?












1












$begingroup$


Suppose we have two events $A, B subset Omega$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, mathbf{P})$ and we want to know the probability of $A cap B$.



If $A$ and $B$ are independent, of course $mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{P}(A)mathbf{P}(B)$.



However, what can we say without independence? It seems that with Cauchy-Schwarz we have that
$$
mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{E} 1_A 1_B leq sqrt{mathbf{P}(A) mathbf{P}(B)}.
$$

Is this a good bound? Is it useful? That's a soft question, but I guess I am wondering if it is really useful at all.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Suppose we have two events $A, B subset Omega$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, mathbf{P})$ and we want to know the probability of $A cap B$.



    If $A$ and $B$ are independent, of course $mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{P}(A)mathbf{P}(B)$.



    However, what can we say without independence? It seems that with Cauchy-Schwarz we have that
    $$
    mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{E} 1_A 1_B leq sqrt{mathbf{P}(A) mathbf{P}(B)}.
    $$

    Is this a good bound? Is it useful? That's a soft question, but I guess I am wondering if it is really useful at all.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Suppose we have two events $A, B subset Omega$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, mathbf{P})$ and we want to know the probability of $A cap B$.



      If $A$ and $B$ are independent, of course $mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{P}(A)mathbf{P}(B)$.



      However, what can we say without independence? It seems that with Cauchy-Schwarz we have that
      $$
      mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{E} 1_A 1_B leq sqrt{mathbf{P}(A) mathbf{P}(B)}.
      $$

      Is this a good bound? Is it useful? That's a soft question, but I guess I am wondering if it is really useful at all.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose we have two events $A, B subset Omega$ in a probability space $(Omega, mathcal{F}, mathbf{P})$ and we want to know the probability of $A cap B$.



      If $A$ and $B$ are independent, of course $mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{P}(A)mathbf{P}(B)$.



      However, what can we say without independence? It seems that with Cauchy-Schwarz we have that
      $$
      mathbf{P}(A cap B) = mathbf{E} 1_A 1_B leq sqrt{mathbf{P}(A) mathbf{P}(B)}.
      $$

      Is this a good bound? Is it useful? That's a soft question, but I guess I am wondering if it is really useful at all.







      probability-theory soft-question






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 3 at 4:52







      Drew Brady

















      asked Jan 3 at 4:45









      Drew BradyDrew Brady

      712315




      712315






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          This bound is not really useful because $min({bf P}(A), {bf P}(B))$ is better. Note that $$sqrt{{bf P}(A) {bf P}(B)} ge min({bf P}(A),{bf P}(B)) ge {bf P}(A cap B)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Fair. Recording another thought here, in case others find it useful: you might ask, okay what if $1 < p < infty$, $q$ solves $1/p + 1/q = 1$? Holder's inequality also gives you the bound $mathbf{P}(A cap B) leq mathbf{P}(A)^{1/p} mathbf{P}(B)^{1/q}$, but a similar argument above holds; this is also not useful.
            $endgroup$
            – Drew Brady
            Jan 3 at 6:47











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          $begingroup$

          This bound is not really useful because $min({bf P}(A), {bf P}(B))$ is better. Note that $$sqrt{{bf P}(A) {bf P}(B)} ge min({bf P}(A),{bf P}(B)) ge {bf P}(A cap B)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Fair. Recording another thought here, in case others find it useful: you might ask, okay what if $1 < p < infty$, $q$ solves $1/p + 1/q = 1$? Holder's inequality also gives you the bound $mathbf{P}(A cap B) leq mathbf{P}(A)^{1/p} mathbf{P}(B)^{1/q}$, but a similar argument above holds; this is also not useful.
            $endgroup$
            – Drew Brady
            Jan 3 at 6:47
















          3












          $begingroup$

          This bound is not really useful because $min({bf P}(A), {bf P}(B))$ is better. Note that $$sqrt{{bf P}(A) {bf P}(B)} ge min({bf P}(A),{bf P}(B)) ge {bf P}(A cap B)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Fair. Recording another thought here, in case others find it useful: you might ask, okay what if $1 < p < infty$, $q$ solves $1/p + 1/q = 1$? Holder's inequality also gives you the bound $mathbf{P}(A cap B) leq mathbf{P}(A)^{1/p} mathbf{P}(B)^{1/q}$, but a similar argument above holds; this is also not useful.
            $endgroup$
            – Drew Brady
            Jan 3 at 6:47














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          This bound is not really useful because $min({bf P}(A), {bf P}(B))$ is better. Note that $$sqrt{{bf P}(A) {bf P}(B)} ge min({bf P}(A),{bf P}(B)) ge {bf P}(A cap B)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          This bound is not really useful because $min({bf P}(A), {bf P}(B))$ is better. Note that $$sqrt{{bf P}(A) {bf P}(B)} ge min({bf P}(A),{bf P}(B)) ge {bf P}(A cap B)$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 3 at 4:57









          Robert IsraelRobert Israel

          321k23210462




          321k23210462












          • $begingroup$
            Fair. Recording another thought here, in case others find it useful: you might ask, okay what if $1 < p < infty$, $q$ solves $1/p + 1/q = 1$? Holder's inequality also gives you the bound $mathbf{P}(A cap B) leq mathbf{P}(A)^{1/p} mathbf{P}(B)^{1/q}$, but a similar argument above holds; this is also not useful.
            $endgroup$
            – Drew Brady
            Jan 3 at 6:47


















          • $begingroup$
            Fair. Recording another thought here, in case others find it useful: you might ask, okay what if $1 < p < infty$, $q$ solves $1/p + 1/q = 1$? Holder's inequality also gives you the bound $mathbf{P}(A cap B) leq mathbf{P}(A)^{1/p} mathbf{P}(B)^{1/q}$, but a similar argument above holds; this is also not useful.
            $endgroup$
            – Drew Brady
            Jan 3 at 6:47
















          $begingroup$
          Fair. Recording another thought here, in case others find it useful: you might ask, okay what if $1 < p < infty$, $q$ solves $1/p + 1/q = 1$? Holder's inequality also gives you the bound $mathbf{P}(A cap B) leq mathbf{P}(A)^{1/p} mathbf{P}(B)^{1/q}$, but a similar argument above holds; this is also not useful.
          $endgroup$
          – Drew Brady
          Jan 3 at 6:47




          $begingroup$
          Fair. Recording another thought here, in case others find it useful: you might ask, okay what if $1 < p < infty$, $q$ solves $1/p + 1/q = 1$? Holder's inequality also gives you the bound $mathbf{P}(A cap B) leq mathbf{P}(A)^{1/p} mathbf{P}(B)^{1/q}$, but a similar argument above holds; this is also not useful.
          $endgroup$
          – Drew Brady
          Jan 3 at 6:47


















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