Simple series question. $sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{((n^5)+1)^frac{1}{3}}$












1












$begingroup$


I think this converges due to direct comparison with $frac{1}{n^{5/3}}$ but I can't double check this anywhere.










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  • $begingroup$
    You're on the right track. What exactly does the direct comparison test say, and how can you prove it's true that $a_n leq b_n$
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 1:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I thought that considering there was a plus 1 in the denominator of the problem question it would always be smaller than 1/n^5/3 so since 1/n^5/3 converges due to the p-test and is bigger than a similar smaller function know that the smaller converges as well do to direct comparison. Do you agree?
    $endgroup$
    – Finegold
    Jan 18 at 1:47










  • $begingroup$
    You're exactly right.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 2:21
















1












$begingroup$


I think this converges due to direct comparison with $frac{1}{n^{5/3}}$ but I can't double check this anywhere.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You're on the right track. What exactly does the direct comparison test say, and how can you prove it's true that $a_n leq b_n$
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 1:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I thought that considering there was a plus 1 in the denominator of the problem question it would always be smaller than 1/n^5/3 so since 1/n^5/3 converges due to the p-test and is bigger than a similar smaller function know that the smaller converges as well do to direct comparison. Do you agree?
    $endgroup$
    – Finegold
    Jan 18 at 1:47










  • $begingroup$
    You're exactly right.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 2:21














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I think this converges due to direct comparison with $frac{1}{n^{5/3}}$ but I can't double check this anywhere.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I think this converges due to direct comparison with $frac{1}{n^{5/3}}$ but I can't double check this anywhere.







sequences-and-series






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 18 at 2:16









Thomas Shelby

4,7832727




4,7832727










asked Jan 18 at 1:25









FinegoldFinegold

62




62












  • $begingroup$
    You're on the right track. What exactly does the direct comparison test say, and how can you prove it's true that $a_n leq b_n$
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 1:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I thought that considering there was a plus 1 in the denominator of the problem question it would always be smaller than 1/n^5/3 so since 1/n^5/3 converges due to the p-test and is bigger than a similar smaller function know that the smaller converges as well do to direct comparison. Do you agree?
    $endgroup$
    – Finegold
    Jan 18 at 1:47










  • $begingroup$
    You're exactly right.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 2:21


















  • $begingroup$
    You're on the right track. What exactly does the direct comparison test say, and how can you prove it's true that $a_n leq b_n$
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 1:33






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    I thought that considering there was a plus 1 in the denominator of the problem question it would always be smaller than 1/n^5/3 so since 1/n^5/3 converges due to the p-test and is bigger than a similar smaller function know that the smaller converges as well do to direct comparison. Do you agree?
    $endgroup$
    – Finegold
    Jan 18 at 1:47










  • $begingroup$
    You're exactly right.
    $endgroup$
    – Tom Himler
    Jan 18 at 2:21
















$begingroup$
You're on the right track. What exactly does the direct comparison test say, and how can you prove it's true that $a_n leq b_n$
$endgroup$
– Tom Himler
Jan 18 at 1:33




$begingroup$
You're on the right track. What exactly does the direct comparison test say, and how can you prove it's true that $a_n leq b_n$
$endgroup$
– Tom Himler
Jan 18 at 1:33




2




2




$begingroup$
I thought that considering there was a plus 1 in the denominator of the problem question it would always be smaller than 1/n^5/3 so since 1/n^5/3 converges due to the p-test and is bigger than a similar smaller function know that the smaller converges as well do to direct comparison. Do you agree?
$endgroup$
– Finegold
Jan 18 at 1:47




$begingroup$
I thought that considering there was a plus 1 in the denominator of the problem question it would always be smaller than 1/n^5/3 so since 1/n^5/3 converges due to the p-test and is bigger than a similar smaller function know that the smaller converges as well do to direct comparison. Do you agree?
$endgroup$
– Finegold
Jan 18 at 1:47












$begingroup$
You're exactly right.
$endgroup$
– Tom Himler
Jan 18 at 2:21




$begingroup$
You're exactly right.
$endgroup$
– Tom Himler
Jan 18 at 2:21










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Right.



$(n^5+1)^{1/3}
gt (n^5)^{1/3}
=n^{5/3}
$



so the sum converges by the $p$-test:



$sum dfrac1{n^p}$
converges for
$p > 1$
(easily proved by the
integral test)
and diverges for
$p le 1$.






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    1 Answer
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    2












    $begingroup$

    Right.



    $(n^5+1)^{1/3}
    gt (n^5)^{1/3}
    =n^{5/3}
    $



    so the sum converges by the $p$-test:



    $sum dfrac1{n^p}$
    converges for
    $p > 1$
    (easily proved by the
    integral test)
    and diverges for
    $p le 1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      Right.



      $(n^5+1)^{1/3}
      gt (n^5)^{1/3}
      =n^{5/3}
      $



      so the sum converges by the $p$-test:



      $sum dfrac1{n^p}$
      converges for
      $p > 1$
      (easily proved by the
      integral test)
      and diverges for
      $p le 1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Right.



        $(n^5+1)^{1/3}
        gt (n^5)^{1/3}
        =n^{5/3}
        $



        so the sum converges by the $p$-test:



        $sum dfrac1{n^p}$
        converges for
        $p > 1$
        (easily proved by the
        integral test)
        and diverges for
        $p le 1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Right.



        $(n^5+1)^{1/3}
        gt (n^5)^{1/3}
        =n^{5/3}
        $



        so the sum converges by the $p$-test:



        $sum dfrac1{n^p}$
        converges for
        $p > 1$
        (easily proved by the
        integral test)
        and diverges for
        $p le 1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 18 at 2:08









        marty cohenmarty cohen

        75.7k549130




        75.7k549130






























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