Why should the series representation of the zeta function know about its analytic continuation?












2












$begingroup$


In physics, when we calculate the renormalized sum of $S=sum_{n=1}^infty n$, we usually use an exponential regulator and instead first calculate



$$S_epsilon = sum_{n=1}^infty ne^{-epsilon n} = frac{e^epsilon}{(e^epsilon -1)^2}. $$



There's nothing controversial about this, but an example by Lubos Motl can be found here.



Now, if we expand this around small $epsilon>0$ we obtain that



begin{align*}
S_epsilon &= frac{1}{epsilon^2} - frac{1}{12} + {cal O}(epsilon^2)\
&=zeta(-1) + frac{1}{epsilon^2} + {cal O}(epsilon^2).
end{align*}



So that when we take $epsilon to 0$ (in which limit $S_epsilon to S)$, we obtain that



$$S to zeta(-1) + text{divergent piece.}$$



Now, I know that this "decomposition", if you will, into a convergent and divergent part is independent of the sum regulator, and hence always yields the same result. Furthermore, the domain of validity of the series representation of the $zeta$ function is only when $mathbb{R}(s) >0$. Therefore, we ought to expect it to be of no use to us when naively applying it in regions where $mathbb{R}(s)<1$.



However, it is useful. Namely, its renormalized sum gives us the correct value for the analytic continuation of the $zeta$ function. Furthermore, since the analytic continuation of a complex function is unique I feel there must be a connection between these two things.



Question: How does the series representation "know" about its analytic continuation? That is, what exactly is the connection between the naive summation and its analytic continuation?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To see what is really happening you should look at $Gamma(s) zeta(s) = int_0^infty t^{s-1} f(t)dt$ where $f(t) = sum_{n=1}^infty e^{-nt}$. That $g(t)=t f(t)$ is $C^infty$ at $t=0$ implies that $int_0^1 t^{s-1} (f(t)- t^{-1}sum_{k=0}^K frac{g^{(k)}(0)}{k!} t^k)dt$ is analytic for $Re(s) > -K$, whence the poles of $Gamma(s) zeta(s) $ are at the negative integers, of order $1$ and residue $frac{g^{(k-1)}(0)}{(k-1)!}$ ie. $zeta(-k) = (-1)^{k} g^{(k-1)}(0)$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 10 at 6:01


















2












$begingroup$


In physics, when we calculate the renormalized sum of $S=sum_{n=1}^infty n$, we usually use an exponential regulator and instead first calculate



$$S_epsilon = sum_{n=1}^infty ne^{-epsilon n} = frac{e^epsilon}{(e^epsilon -1)^2}. $$



There's nothing controversial about this, but an example by Lubos Motl can be found here.



Now, if we expand this around small $epsilon>0$ we obtain that



begin{align*}
S_epsilon &= frac{1}{epsilon^2} - frac{1}{12} + {cal O}(epsilon^2)\
&=zeta(-1) + frac{1}{epsilon^2} + {cal O}(epsilon^2).
end{align*}



So that when we take $epsilon to 0$ (in which limit $S_epsilon to S)$, we obtain that



$$S to zeta(-1) + text{divergent piece.}$$



Now, I know that this "decomposition", if you will, into a convergent and divergent part is independent of the sum regulator, and hence always yields the same result. Furthermore, the domain of validity of the series representation of the $zeta$ function is only when $mathbb{R}(s) >0$. Therefore, we ought to expect it to be of no use to us when naively applying it in regions where $mathbb{R}(s)<1$.



However, it is useful. Namely, its renormalized sum gives us the correct value for the analytic continuation of the $zeta$ function. Furthermore, since the analytic continuation of a complex function is unique I feel there must be a connection between these two things.



Question: How does the series representation "know" about its analytic continuation? That is, what exactly is the connection between the naive summation and its analytic continuation?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To see what is really happening you should look at $Gamma(s) zeta(s) = int_0^infty t^{s-1} f(t)dt$ where $f(t) = sum_{n=1}^infty e^{-nt}$. That $g(t)=t f(t)$ is $C^infty$ at $t=0$ implies that $int_0^1 t^{s-1} (f(t)- t^{-1}sum_{k=0}^K frac{g^{(k)}(0)}{k!} t^k)dt$ is analytic for $Re(s) > -K$, whence the poles of $Gamma(s) zeta(s) $ are at the negative integers, of order $1$ and residue $frac{g^{(k-1)}(0)}{(k-1)!}$ ie. $zeta(-k) = (-1)^{k} g^{(k-1)}(0)$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 10 at 6:01
















2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


In physics, when we calculate the renormalized sum of $S=sum_{n=1}^infty n$, we usually use an exponential regulator and instead first calculate



$$S_epsilon = sum_{n=1}^infty ne^{-epsilon n} = frac{e^epsilon}{(e^epsilon -1)^2}. $$



There's nothing controversial about this, but an example by Lubos Motl can be found here.



Now, if we expand this around small $epsilon>0$ we obtain that



begin{align*}
S_epsilon &= frac{1}{epsilon^2} - frac{1}{12} + {cal O}(epsilon^2)\
&=zeta(-1) + frac{1}{epsilon^2} + {cal O}(epsilon^2).
end{align*}



So that when we take $epsilon to 0$ (in which limit $S_epsilon to S)$, we obtain that



$$S to zeta(-1) + text{divergent piece.}$$



Now, I know that this "decomposition", if you will, into a convergent and divergent part is independent of the sum regulator, and hence always yields the same result. Furthermore, the domain of validity of the series representation of the $zeta$ function is only when $mathbb{R}(s) >0$. Therefore, we ought to expect it to be of no use to us when naively applying it in regions where $mathbb{R}(s)<1$.



However, it is useful. Namely, its renormalized sum gives us the correct value for the analytic continuation of the $zeta$ function. Furthermore, since the analytic continuation of a complex function is unique I feel there must be a connection between these two things.



Question: How does the series representation "know" about its analytic continuation? That is, what exactly is the connection between the naive summation and its analytic continuation?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In physics, when we calculate the renormalized sum of $S=sum_{n=1}^infty n$, we usually use an exponential regulator and instead first calculate



$$S_epsilon = sum_{n=1}^infty ne^{-epsilon n} = frac{e^epsilon}{(e^epsilon -1)^2}. $$



There's nothing controversial about this, but an example by Lubos Motl can be found here.



Now, if we expand this around small $epsilon>0$ we obtain that



begin{align*}
S_epsilon &= frac{1}{epsilon^2} - frac{1}{12} + {cal O}(epsilon^2)\
&=zeta(-1) + frac{1}{epsilon^2} + {cal O}(epsilon^2).
end{align*}



So that when we take $epsilon to 0$ (in which limit $S_epsilon to S)$, we obtain that



$$S to zeta(-1) + text{divergent piece.}$$



Now, I know that this "decomposition", if you will, into a convergent and divergent part is independent of the sum regulator, and hence always yields the same result. Furthermore, the domain of validity of the series representation of the $zeta$ function is only when $mathbb{R}(s) >0$. Therefore, we ought to expect it to be of no use to us when naively applying it in regions where $mathbb{R}(s)<1$.



However, it is useful. Namely, its renormalized sum gives us the correct value for the analytic continuation of the $zeta$ function. Furthermore, since the analytic continuation of a complex function is unique I feel there must be a connection between these two things.



Question: How does the series representation "know" about its analytic continuation? That is, what exactly is the connection between the naive summation and its analytic continuation?







riemann-zeta analytic-continuation






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asked Jan 10 at 5:53









InertialObserverInertialObserver

387110




387110








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To see what is really happening you should look at $Gamma(s) zeta(s) = int_0^infty t^{s-1} f(t)dt$ where $f(t) = sum_{n=1}^infty e^{-nt}$. That $g(t)=t f(t)$ is $C^infty$ at $t=0$ implies that $int_0^1 t^{s-1} (f(t)- t^{-1}sum_{k=0}^K frac{g^{(k)}(0)}{k!} t^k)dt$ is analytic for $Re(s) > -K$, whence the poles of $Gamma(s) zeta(s) $ are at the negative integers, of order $1$ and residue $frac{g^{(k-1)}(0)}{(k-1)!}$ ie. $zeta(-k) = (-1)^{k} g^{(k-1)}(0)$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 10 at 6:01
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    To see what is really happening you should look at $Gamma(s) zeta(s) = int_0^infty t^{s-1} f(t)dt$ where $f(t) = sum_{n=1}^infty e^{-nt}$. That $g(t)=t f(t)$ is $C^infty$ at $t=0$ implies that $int_0^1 t^{s-1} (f(t)- t^{-1}sum_{k=0}^K frac{g^{(k)}(0)}{k!} t^k)dt$ is analytic for $Re(s) > -K$, whence the poles of $Gamma(s) zeta(s) $ are at the negative integers, of order $1$ and residue $frac{g^{(k-1)}(0)}{(k-1)!}$ ie. $zeta(-k) = (-1)^{k} g^{(k-1)}(0)$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 10 at 6:01










1




1




$begingroup$
To see what is really happening you should look at $Gamma(s) zeta(s) = int_0^infty t^{s-1} f(t)dt$ where $f(t) = sum_{n=1}^infty e^{-nt}$. That $g(t)=t f(t)$ is $C^infty$ at $t=0$ implies that $int_0^1 t^{s-1} (f(t)- t^{-1}sum_{k=0}^K frac{g^{(k)}(0)}{k!} t^k)dt$ is analytic for $Re(s) > -K$, whence the poles of $Gamma(s) zeta(s) $ are at the negative integers, of order $1$ and residue $frac{g^{(k-1)}(0)}{(k-1)!}$ ie. $zeta(-k) = (-1)^{k} g^{(k-1)}(0)$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jan 10 at 6:01






$begingroup$
To see what is really happening you should look at $Gamma(s) zeta(s) = int_0^infty t^{s-1} f(t)dt$ where $f(t) = sum_{n=1}^infty e^{-nt}$. That $g(t)=t f(t)$ is $C^infty$ at $t=0$ implies that $int_0^1 t^{s-1} (f(t)- t^{-1}sum_{k=0}^K frac{g^{(k)}(0)}{k!} t^k)dt$ is analytic for $Re(s) > -K$, whence the poles of $Gamma(s) zeta(s) $ are at the negative integers, of order $1$ and residue $frac{g^{(k-1)}(0)}{(k-1)!}$ ie. $zeta(-k) = (-1)^{k} g^{(k-1)}(0)$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jan 10 at 6:01












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