Existence of $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$












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I was studying Markov chain and in it, it is useful to have a transition matrix $M$ that $lim_{n rightarrow infty}M^n$ exist.



So I thought about the existence of $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ in general($A$ is a square matrix). and it was easy to prove:




for every diagonalizable matrix $A= QDQ^{-1}$, the $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ exists if and only if elements of $D$ be in the range $(-1,1]$.




but what about not diagonalizable matrices? what is the condition for them?



EXAMPLES:
$E_1$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_1^n$ exists, $E_2$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_2^n$ does not exists.
$$ E_1 = begin{bmatrix}0.1 & 0.1 \0 & 0.1 end{bmatrix}, E_2 = begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \0 & 1 end{bmatrix}$$










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    $begingroup$


    I was studying Markov chain and in it, it is useful to have a transition matrix $M$ that $lim_{n rightarrow infty}M^n$ exist.



    So I thought about the existence of $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ in general($A$ is a square matrix). and it was easy to prove:




    for every diagonalizable matrix $A= QDQ^{-1}$, the $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ exists if and only if elements of $D$ be in the range $(-1,1]$.




    but what about not diagonalizable matrices? what is the condition for them?



    EXAMPLES:
    $E_1$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_1^n$ exists, $E_2$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_2^n$ does not exists.
    $$ E_1 = begin{bmatrix}0.1 & 0.1 \0 & 0.1 end{bmatrix}, E_2 = begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \0 & 1 end{bmatrix}$$










    share|cite|improve this question









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      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I was studying Markov chain and in it, it is useful to have a transition matrix $M$ that $lim_{n rightarrow infty}M^n$ exist.



      So I thought about the existence of $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ in general($A$ is a square matrix). and it was easy to prove:




      for every diagonalizable matrix $A= QDQ^{-1}$, the $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ exists if and only if elements of $D$ be in the range $(-1,1]$.




      but what about not diagonalizable matrices? what is the condition for them?



      EXAMPLES:
      $E_1$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_1^n$ exists, $E_2$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_2^n$ does not exists.
      $$ E_1 = begin{bmatrix}0.1 & 0.1 \0 & 0.1 end{bmatrix}, E_2 = begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \0 & 1 end{bmatrix}$$










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I was studying Markov chain and in it, it is useful to have a transition matrix $M$ that $lim_{n rightarrow infty}M^n$ exist.



      So I thought about the existence of $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ in general($A$ is a square matrix). and it was easy to prove:




      for every diagonalizable matrix $A= QDQ^{-1}$, the $lim_{n rightarrow infty}A^n$ exists if and only if elements of $D$ be in the range $(-1,1]$.




      but what about not diagonalizable matrices? what is the condition for them?



      EXAMPLES:
      $E_1$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_1^n$ exists, $E_2$ is not diagonalizable and $lim_{n rightarrow infty}E_2^n$ does not exists.
      $$ E_1 = begin{bmatrix}0.1 & 0.1 \0 & 0.1 end{bmatrix}, E_2 = begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \0 & 1 end{bmatrix}$$







      linear-algebra matrices limits






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      asked Jan 12 at 6:01









      Peyman mohseni kiasariPeyman mohseni kiasari

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          You can basically do the same thing with the Jordan normal form. You need all eigenvalues to be either in the interior of the unit disk or $1$. Additionally, if $1$ is an eigenvalue, it cannot be defective (defective eigenvalues of $1$ lead to polynomial growth).






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            1 Answer
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            $begingroup$

            You can basically do the same thing with the Jordan normal form. You need all eigenvalues to be either in the interior of the unit disk or $1$. Additionally, if $1$ is an eigenvalue, it cannot be defective (defective eigenvalues of $1$ lead to polynomial growth).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              You can basically do the same thing with the Jordan normal form. You need all eigenvalues to be either in the interior of the unit disk or $1$. Additionally, if $1$ is an eigenvalue, it cannot be defective (defective eigenvalues of $1$ lead to polynomial growth).






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                You can basically do the same thing with the Jordan normal form. You need all eigenvalues to be either in the interior of the unit disk or $1$. Additionally, if $1$ is an eigenvalue, it cannot be defective (defective eigenvalues of $1$ lead to polynomial growth).






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                You can basically do the same thing with the Jordan normal form. You need all eigenvalues to be either in the interior of the unit disk or $1$. Additionally, if $1$ is an eigenvalue, it cannot be defective (defective eigenvalues of $1$ lead to polynomial growth).







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 12 at 6:03









                IanIan

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