Suppose that the spot price…
$begingroup$
Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?
The answer is $315, right?
Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?
I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?
Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?
thanks in advance
I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here
valuation-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?
The answer is $315, right?
Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?
I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?
Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?
thanks in advance
I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here
valuation-theory
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26
$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?
The answer is $315, right?
Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?
I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?
Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?
thanks in advance
I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here
valuation-theory
$endgroup$
Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?
The answer is $315, right?
Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?
I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?
Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.
I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?
thanks in advance
I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here
valuation-theory
valuation-theory
edited Jan 4 at 6:18
max_zorn
3,36361329
3,36361329
asked Jan 4 at 4:12
Nicolas CloetNicolas Cloet
121
121
2
$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26
$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26
$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22
2
2
$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26
$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26
$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22
$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Your first part is correct.
For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.
In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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oldest
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votes
$begingroup$
Your first part is correct.
For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.
In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your first part is correct.
For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.
In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your first part is correct.
For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.
In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.
$endgroup$
Your first part is correct.
For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.
In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.
answered Jan 4 at 7:09
John DoumaJohn Douma
5,51211319
5,51211319
add a comment |
add a comment |
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2
$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26
$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22