Suppose that the spot price…












0












$begingroup$


Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?



The answer is $315, right?



Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?



I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?



Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?



thanks in advance



I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 4 at 4:26










  • $begingroup$
    Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Cloet
    Jan 4 at 6:22
















0












$begingroup$


Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?



The answer is $315, right?



Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?



I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?



Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?



thanks in advance



I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 4 at 4:26










  • $begingroup$
    Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Cloet
    Jan 4 at 6:22














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?



The answer is $315, right?



Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?



I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?



Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?



thanks in advance



I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose the spot price of gold is $300 per ounce and the risk-free
interest rate for one year is 5%. What is a reasonable value for the one-year forward price of gold?



The answer is $315, right?



Suppose the one-year forward price of gold is $340. Argue as follows: borrow 300 dollars for a year and buy one ounce of gold. Then short a forward contract to sell the gold in one year time. Show this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



This comes down to $340 - $315 = $25 , right?



I suppose that the $315 here cones again from the $300*105% ? right?



Then assume the one-year forward price of gold is $300. Argue as follows: sell the gold, then invest the proceeds and long a one-year forward on gold. Show again that this will lead to a risk-free profit (arbitrage) and the one-year forward price of gold must be $315.



I'm confused cause of this part. So if anybody could help?



thanks in advance



I don't know what goes wrong with the notation but when I design the question I don't have a problem until I upload the text. Therefor I wanted to upload an image. enter image description here







valuation-theory






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edited Jan 4 at 6:18









max_zorn

3,36361329




3,36361329










asked Jan 4 at 4:12









Nicolas CloetNicolas Cloet

121




121








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 4 at 4:26










  • $begingroup$
    Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Cloet
    Jan 4 at 6:22














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
    $endgroup$
    – jmerry
    Jan 4 at 4:26










  • $begingroup$
    Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
    $endgroup$
    – Nicolas Cloet
    Jan 4 at 6:22








2




2




$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26




$begingroup$
The notation went funny because dollar signs are used here to delimit "math mode" based on LaTeX. In order to have a dollar sign show up, put a backslash in front of it. (I've edited this fix into your post - it should show up soon)
$endgroup$
– jmerry
Jan 4 at 4:26












$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22




$begingroup$
Waw, that really is an eye-opener to me! Thanks for helping me out! As you might have figured. I'm new to this website.
$endgroup$
– Nicolas Cloet
Jan 4 at 6:22










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Your first part is correct.



For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.



In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.






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    $begingroup$

    Your first part is correct.



    For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.



    In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Your first part is correct.



      For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.



      In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Your first part is correct.



        For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.



        In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Your first part is correct.



        For the second part, if the forward price of gold is the same as the spot price then you can sell the gold today for $$300$ and put the money into an account earning $5%$ interest. At the same time you go long on a one year forward contract. This means you agree to pay $$300$ an ounce a year from now.



        In a year you have $$315$ from the return on your investment so you can buy your gold back and earn a free $$15$. That's what arbitrage is. Since everyone would do this it would drive the forward price up to $$315$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 4 at 7:09









        John DoumaJohn Douma

        5,51211319




        5,51211319






























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