Show that the expected total present value of the bonds > purchased by time $t$ is...












2












$begingroup$



Investors purchase $1000$ dollar bonds at the random times of a
Poisson process with parameter $lambda$. If the interest rate is
$r$, then the present value of an investment purchased at time $t$ is
$1000e^{-r t}$. Show that the expected total present value of the bonds
purchased by time $t$ is
$$frac{1000lambda(1-e^{-r t})}{r}.$$




I'm not sure how what kind of random variable the present value is here. But let $I_tsimtext{poi}(lambda t)$ be the number of purchases at time $t$, denote the present value by $V_t$, so we have that $V_t=1000cdot I_tcdot e^{-r t}.$ I doubt this is correct though, since this is now hard to find $E(V_t).$



What am I missing?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$



    Investors purchase $1000$ dollar bonds at the random times of a
    Poisson process with parameter $lambda$. If the interest rate is
    $r$, then the present value of an investment purchased at time $t$ is
    $1000e^{-r t}$. Show that the expected total present value of the bonds
    purchased by time $t$ is
    $$frac{1000lambda(1-e^{-r t})}{r}.$$




    I'm not sure how what kind of random variable the present value is here. But let $I_tsimtext{poi}(lambda t)$ be the number of purchases at time $t$, denote the present value by $V_t$, so we have that $V_t=1000cdot I_tcdot e^{-r t}.$ I doubt this is correct though, since this is now hard to find $E(V_t).$



    What am I missing?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      0



      $begingroup$



      Investors purchase $1000$ dollar bonds at the random times of a
      Poisson process with parameter $lambda$. If the interest rate is
      $r$, then the present value of an investment purchased at time $t$ is
      $1000e^{-r t}$. Show that the expected total present value of the bonds
      purchased by time $t$ is
      $$frac{1000lambda(1-e^{-r t})}{r}.$$




      I'm not sure how what kind of random variable the present value is here. But let $I_tsimtext{poi}(lambda t)$ be the number of purchases at time $t$, denote the present value by $V_t$, so we have that $V_t=1000cdot I_tcdot e^{-r t}.$ I doubt this is correct though, since this is now hard to find $E(V_t).$



      What am I missing?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Investors purchase $1000$ dollar bonds at the random times of a
      Poisson process with parameter $lambda$. If the interest rate is
      $r$, then the present value of an investment purchased at time $t$ is
      $1000e^{-r t}$. Show that the expected total present value of the bonds
      purchased by time $t$ is
      $$frac{1000lambda(1-e^{-r t})}{r}.$$




      I'm not sure how what kind of random variable the present value is here. But let $I_tsimtext{poi}(lambda t)$ be the number of purchases at time $t$, denote the present value by $V_t$, so we have that $V_t=1000cdot I_tcdot e^{-r t}.$ I doubt this is correct though, since this is now hard to find $E(V_t).$



      What am I missing?







      probability probability-theory poisson-process






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 10 at 0:00







      Parseval

















      asked Jan 9 at 23:55









      ParsevalParseval

      2,9411719




      2,9411719






















          2 Answers
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          1












          $begingroup$

          Here is another way to look at it. I will replace $1000$ with $1$ for readability.



          Let $T_k$ be the time of the $k^{th}$ investment. Recall that the pdf $f_k$ of $T_k$ is a Gamma distribution: $$f_{k}(s)=lambda^k frac{s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s}.$$ Furthermore, the present value of $T_k$ is equal to $e^{-rT_k}$ if $T_kle t$, and is zero if $T_k>t$ (since we only want to count investments before time $t$). Therefore, the expected total present value of all investments is
          begin{align}
          Eleft[sum_{k=1}^infty PV(T_k)right]
          &=sum_{k=1}^infty E[PV(T_k)]
          \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^infty PV(s)f_k(s),ds
          \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^t e^{-rs} frac{lambda^k s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s},ds
          \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} Big(sum_{k=1}^inftyfrac{(lambda s)^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}Big)e^{-lambda s},ds
          \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} e^{lambda s}e^{-lambda s},ds
          \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} ,ds
          \&= lambda (1-e^{rt})/r
          end{align}



          In general, if $f:mathbb R^+to mathbb R$ is any integrable function, then
          $$
          E[sum_{k=1}^infty f(T_k)]=lambdaint_0^infty f(x),dx
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            Let $T_i$ be the purchasing time of the $i$-th bond with value $P$. The total present value of the bond purchased up to time $t$ is



            $$ V_t = sum_{i=1}^{I_t} Pe^{-rT_i}$$



            with the convention that $V_t = 0$ when $I_t = 0$. Then the expected value is
            $$begin{align}
            E[V_t]
            &= PEleft[sum_{i=1}^{I_t} e^{-rT_i}right] \
            &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rT_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
            &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rU_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
            &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}sum_{i=1}^{k}Eleft[ e^{-rU_i}right]Pr{I_t=k} \
            &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right]sum_{k=1}^{infty} kPr{I_t=k} \
            &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right] E[I_t]\
            end{align}$$

            where $U_i sim text{Uniform}(0, t)$ and they are independent. The second step is just applying the law of total expectation, and the third step is a key step: since the time $(T_1, T_2, ldots, T_{k})$ given $I_t = k$ are jointly follows ordered uniform on $0, t)$, and we are computing the expectation of a symmetric function of those time, we can replace it with the unordered uniform $U_i$, and they are i.i.d.. Therefore subsequently we can pull them out from the summation.



            Next we compute
            $$ E[e^{-rU_1}] = int_0^t e^{-ru}frac {1} {t}du = frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt}$$



            As $I_t sim text{Poisson}(lambda t)$, $E[I_t] = lambda t$ and we conclude that



            $$ E[V_t] = P times frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt} times lambda t
            = frac {Plambda(1 - e^{-rt})} {r}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Really nice, thanks a lot. I understand the most of it, however the "key step" is still a bit unclear. Can you please elaborate on the ordered vs unordered? Also how do you know that $T_i$ are uniformly distributed?
              $endgroup$
              – Parseval
              Jan 10 at 12:10











            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            active

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            1












            $begingroup$

            Here is another way to look at it. I will replace $1000$ with $1$ for readability.



            Let $T_k$ be the time of the $k^{th}$ investment. Recall that the pdf $f_k$ of $T_k$ is a Gamma distribution: $$f_{k}(s)=lambda^k frac{s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s}.$$ Furthermore, the present value of $T_k$ is equal to $e^{-rT_k}$ if $T_kle t$, and is zero if $T_k>t$ (since we only want to count investments before time $t$). Therefore, the expected total present value of all investments is
            begin{align}
            Eleft[sum_{k=1}^infty PV(T_k)right]
            &=sum_{k=1}^infty E[PV(T_k)]
            \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^infty PV(s)f_k(s),ds
            \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^t e^{-rs} frac{lambda^k s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s},ds
            \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} Big(sum_{k=1}^inftyfrac{(lambda s)^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}Big)e^{-lambda s},ds
            \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} e^{lambda s}e^{-lambda s},ds
            \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} ,ds
            \&= lambda (1-e^{rt})/r
            end{align}



            In general, if $f:mathbb R^+to mathbb R$ is any integrable function, then
            $$
            E[sum_{k=1}^infty f(T_k)]=lambdaint_0^infty f(x),dx
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Here is another way to look at it. I will replace $1000$ with $1$ for readability.



              Let $T_k$ be the time of the $k^{th}$ investment. Recall that the pdf $f_k$ of $T_k$ is a Gamma distribution: $$f_{k}(s)=lambda^k frac{s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s}.$$ Furthermore, the present value of $T_k$ is equal to $e^{-rT_k}$ if $T_kle t$, and is zero if $T_k>t$ (since we only want to count investments before time $t$). Therefore, the expected total present value of all investments is
              begin{align}
              Eleft[sum_{k=1}^infty PV(T_k)right]
              &=sum_{k=1}^infty E[PV(T_k)]
              \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^infty PV(s)f_k(s),ds
              \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^t e^{-rs} frac{lambda^k s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s},ds
              \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} Big(sum_{k=1}^inftyfrac{(lambda s)^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}Big)e^{-lambda s},ds
              \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} e^{lambda s}e^{-lambda s},ds
              \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} ,ds
              \&= lambda (1-e^{rt})/r
              end{align}



              In general, if $f:mathbb R^+to mathbb R$ is any integrable function, then
              $$
              E[sum_{k=1}^infty f(T_k)]=lambdaint_0^infty f(x),dx
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Here is another way to look at it. I will replace $1000$ with $1$ for readability.



                Let $T_k$ be the time of the $k^{th}$ investment. Recall that the pdf $f_k$ of $T_k$ is a Gamma distribution: $$f_{k}(s)=lambda^k frac{s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s}.$$ Furthermore, the present value of $T_k$ is equal to $e^{-rT_k}$ if $T_kle t$, and is zero if $T_k>t$ (since we only want to count investments before time $t$). Therefore, the expected total present value of all investments is
                begin{align}
                Eleft[sum_{k=1}^infty PV(T_k)right]
                &=sum_{k=1}^infty E[PV(T_k)]
                \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^infty PV(s)f_k(s),ds
                \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^t e^{-rs} frac{lambda^k s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s},ds
                \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} Big(sum_{k=1}^inftyfrac{(lambda s)^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}Big)e^{-lambda s},ds
                \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} e^{lambda s}e^{-lambda s},ds
                \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} ,ds
                \&= lambda (1-e^{rt})/r
                end{align}



                In general, if $f:mathbb R^+to mathbb R$ is any integrable function, then
                $$
                E[sum_{k=1}^infty f(T_k)]=lambdaint_0^infty f(x),dx
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Here is another way to look at it. I will replace $1000$ with $1$ for readability.



                Let $T_k$ be the time of the $k^{th}$ investment. Recall that the pdf $f_k$ of $T_k$ is a Gamma distribution: $$f_{k}(s)=lambda^k frac{s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s}.$$ Furthermore, the present value of $T_k$ is equal to $e^{-rT_k}$ if $T_kle t$, and is zero if $T_k>t$ (since we only want to count investments before time $t$). Therefore, the expected total present value of all investments is
                begin{align}
                Eleft[sum_{k=1}^infty PV(T_k)right]
                &=sum_{k=1}^infty E[PV(T_k)]
                \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^infty PV(s)f_k(s),ds
                \&=sum_{k=1}^infty int_0^t e^{-rs} frac{lambda^k s^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}e^{-lambda s},ds
                \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} Big(sum_{k=1}^inftyfrac{(lambda s)^{k-1}}{(k-1)!}Big)e^{-lambda s},ds
                \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} e^{lambda s}e^{-lambda s},ds
                \&= int_0^t lambda e^{-rs} ,ds
                \&= lambda (1-e^{rt})/r
                end{align}



                In general, if $f:mathbb R^+to mathbb R$ is any integrable function, then
                $$
                E[sum_{k=1}^infty f(T_k)]=lambdaint_0^infty f(x),dx
                $$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 10 at 18:11









                Mike EarnestMike Earnest

                23.9k12051




                23.9k12051























                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    Let $T_i$ be the purchasing time of the $i$-th bond with value $P$. The total present value of the bond purchased up to time $t$ is



                    $$ V_t = sum_{i=1}^{I_t} Pe^{-rT_i}$$



                    with the convention that $V_t = 0$ when $I_t = 0$. Then the expected value is
                    $$begin{align}
                    E[V_t]
                    &= PEleft[sum_{i=1}^{I_t} e^{-rT_i}right] \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rT_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rU_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}sum_{i=1}^{k}Eleft[ e^{-rU_i}right]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right]sum_{k=1}^{infty} kPr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right] E[I_t]\
                    end{align}$$

                    where $U_i sim text{Uniform}(0, t)$ and they are independent. The second step is just applying the law of total expectation, and the third step is a key step: since the time $(T_1, T_2, ldots, T_{k})$ given $I_t = k$ are jointly follows ordered uniform on $0, t)$, and we are computing the expectation of a symmetric function of those time, we can replace it with the unordered uniform $U_i$, and they are i.i.d.. Therefore subsequently we can pull them out from the summation.



                    Next we compute
                    $$ E[e^{-rU_1}] = int_0^t e^{-ru}frac {1} {t}du = frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt}$$



                    As $I_t sim text{Poisson}(lambda t)$, $E[I_t] = lambda t$ and we conclude that



                    $$ E[V_t] = P times frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt} times lambda t
                    = frac {Plambda(1 - e^{-rt})} {r}$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Really nice, thanks a lot. I understand the most of it, however the "key step" is still a bit unclear. Can you please elaborate on the ordered vs unordered? Also how do you know that $T_i$ are uniformly distributed?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Parseval
                      Jan 10 at 12:10
















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    Let $T_i$ be the purchasing time of the $i$-th bond with value $P$. The total present value of the bond purchased up to time $t$ is



                    $$ V_t = sum_{i=1}^{I_t} Pe^{-rT_i}$$



                    with the convention that $V_t = 0$ when $I_t = 0$. Then the expected value is
                    $$begin{align}
                    E[V_t]
                    &= PEleft[sum_{i=1}^{I_t} e^{-rT_i}right] \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rT_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rU_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}sum_{i=1}^{k}Eleft[ e^{-rU_i}right]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right]sum_{k=1}^{infty} kPr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right] E[I_t]\
                    end{align}$$

                    where $U_i sim text{Uniform}(0, t)$ and they are independent. The second step is just applying the law of total expectation, and the third step is a key step: since the time $(T_1, T_2, ldots, T_{k})$ given $I_t = k$ are jointly follows ordered uniform on $0, t)$, and we are computing the expectation of a symmetric function of those time, we can replace it with the unordered uniform $U_i$, and they are i.i.d.. Therefore subsequently we can pull them out from the summation.



                    Next we compute
                    $$ E[e^{-rU_1}] = int_0^t e^{-ru}frac {1} {t}du = frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt}$$



                    As $I_t sim text{Poisson}(lambda t)$, $E[I_t] = lambda t$ and we conclude that



                    $$ E[V_t] = P times frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt} times lambda t
                    = frac {Plambda(1 - e^{-rt})} {r}$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Really nice, thanks a lot. I understand the most of it, however the "key step" is still a bit unclear. Can you please elaborate on the ordered vs unordered? Also how do you know that $T_i$ are uniformly distributed?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Parseval
                      Jan 10 at 12:10














                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    Let $T_i$ be the purchasing time of the $i$-th bond with value $P$. The total present value of the bond purchased up to time $t$ is



                    $$ V_t = sum_{i=1}^{I_t} Pe^{-rT_i}$$



                    with the convention that $V_t = 0$ when $I_t = 0$. Then the expected value is
                    $$begin{align}
                    E[V_t]
                    &= PEleft[sum_{i=1}^{I_t} e^{-rT_i}right] \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rT_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rU_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}sum_{i=1}^{k}Eleft[ e^{-rU_i}right]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right]sum_{k=1}^{infty} kPr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right] E[I_t]\
                    end{align}$$

                    where $U_i sim text{Uniform}(0, t)$ and they are independent. The second step is just applying the law of total expectation, and the third step is a key step: since the time $(T_1, T_2, ldots, T_{k})$ given $I_t = k$ are jointly follows ordered uniform on $0, t)$, and we are computing the expectation of a symmetric function of those time, we can replace it with the unordered uniform $U_i$, and they are i.i.d.. Therefore subsequently we can pull them out from the summation.



                    Next we compute
                    $$ E[e^{-rU_1}] = int_0^t e^{-ru}frac {1} {t}du = frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt}$$



                    As $I_t sim text{Poisson}(lambda t)$, $E[I_t] = lambda t$ and we conclude that



                    $$ E[V_t] = P times frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt} times lambda t
                    = frac {Plambda(1 - e^{-rt})} {r}$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Let $T_i$ be the purchasing time of the $i$-th bond with value $P$. The total present value of the bond purchased up to time $t$ is



                    $$ V_t = sum_{i=1}^{I_t} Pe^{-rT_i}$$



                    with the convention that $V_t = 0$ when $I_t = 0$. Then the expected value is
                    $$begin{align}
                    E[V_t]
                    &= PEleft[sum_{i=1}^{I_t} e^{-rT_i}right] \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rT_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}Eleft[sum_{i=1}^{k} e^{-rU_i}Bigg|I_t = kright]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= Psum_{k=1}^{infty}sum_{i=1}^{k}Eleft[ e^{-rU_i}right]Pr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right]sum_{k=1}^{infty} kPr{I_t=k} \
                    &= PEleft[ e^{-rU_1}right] E[I_t]\
                    end{align}$$

                    where $U_i sim text{Uniform}(0, t)$ and they are independent. The second step is just applying the law of total expectation, and the third step is a key step: since the time $(T_1, T_2, ldots, T_{k})$ given $I_t = k$ are jointly follows ordered uniform on $0, t)$, and we are computing the expectation of a symmetric function of those time, we can replace it with the unordered uniform $U_i$, and they are i.i.d.. Therefore subsequently we can pull them out from the summation.



                    Next we compute
                    $$ E[e^{-rU_1}] = int_0^t e^{-ru}frac {1} {t}du = frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt}$$



                    As $I_t sim text{Poisson}(lambda t)$, $E[I_t] = lambda t$ and we conclude that



                    $$ E[V_t] = P times frac {1 - e^{-rt}} {rt} times lambda t
                    = frac {Plambda(1 - e^{-rt})} {r}$$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 10 at 8:33









                    BGMBGM

                    3,835158




                    3,835158












                    • $begingroup$
                      Really nice, thanks a lot. I understand the most of it, however the "key step" is still a bit unclear. Can you please elaborate on the ordered vs unordered? Also how do you know that $T_i$ are uniformly distributed?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Parseval
                      Jan 10 at 12:10


















                    • $begingroup$
                      Really nice, thanks a lot. I understand the most of it, however the "key step" is still a bit unclear. Can you please elaborate on the ordered vs unordered? Also how do you know that $T_i$ are uniformly distributed?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Parseval
                      Jan 10 at 12:10
















                    $begingroup$
                    Really nice, thanks a lot. I understand the most of it, however the "key step" is still a bit unclear. Can you please elaborate on the ordered vs unordered? Also how do you know that $T_i$ are uniformly distributed?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Parseval
                    Jan 10 at 12:10




                    $begingroup$
                    Really nice, thanks a lot. I understand the most of it, however the "key step" is still a bit unclear. Can you please elaborate on the ordered vs unordered? Also how do you know that $T_i$ are uniformly distributed?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Parseval
                    Jan 10 at 12:10


















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