Conditional probability with choosing two cards from a deck












0












$begingroup$


Two cards are picked randomly from a deck. What is the probability that if the first card is Spades, the second card will be a Queen?



What I have so far:



Let $A$ be the event the first card is Spades.



Let $B$ be the event the second card is a Queen



$$P(B|A) = frac{P(Acap B)}{P(A)}$$
$$P(B|A) = frac{P(A)P(B|A)}{P(A)}$$
$$P(B|A) = frac{frac{13}{52}P(B|A)}{frac{13}{52}}$$



But now i get confused for $P(B|A)$ since its the problem im trying to solve in the first place... I know that $A$ and $B$ are dependent events since if a spade is drawn it could be the Queen spade.



So we we remove that possibility, which would make the probability of drawing the second queen be $3/51$. But, if that $P(B|A) = 3/51$ wouldnt that be the solution to the question in the first place? What happend to the $13/52$ parts?Also, if the first card is not a queen then shouldn't we consider that case as well?










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Two cards are picked randomly from a deck. What is the probability that if the first card is Spades, the second card will be a Queen?



    What I have so far:



    Let $A$ be the event the first card is Spades.



    Let $B$ be the event the second card is a Queen



    $$P(B|A) = frac{P(Acap B)}{P(A)}$$
    $$P(B|A) = frac{P(A)P(B|A)}{P(A)}$$
    $$P(B|A) = frac{frac{13}{52}P(B|A)}{frac{13}{52}}$$



    But now i get confused for $P(B|A)$ since its the problem im trying to solve in the first place... I know that $A$ and $B$ are dependent events since if a spade is drawn it could be the Queen spade.



    So we we remove that possibility, which would make the probability of drawing the second queen be $3/51$. But, if that $P(B|A) = 3/51$ wouldnt that be the solution to the question in the first place? What happend to the $13/52$ parts?Also, if the first card is not a queen then shouldn't we consider that case as well?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Two cards are picked randomly from a deck. What is the probability that if the first card is Spades, the second card will be a Queen?



      What I have so far:



      Let $A$ be the event the first card is Spades.



      Let $B$ be the event the second card is a Queen



      $$P(B|A) = frac{P(Acap B)}{P(A)}$$
      $$P(B|A) = frac{P(A)P(B|A)}{P(A)}$$
      $$P(B|A) = frac{frac{13}{52}P(B|A)}{frac{13}{52}}$$



      But now i get confused for $P(B|A)$ since its the problem im trying to solve in the first place... I know that $A$ and $B$ are dependent events since if a spade is drawn it could be the Queen spade.



      So we we remove that possibility, which would make the probability of drawing the second queen be $3/51$. But, if that $P(B|A) = 3/51$ wouldnt that be the solution to the question in the first place? What happend to the $13/52$ parts?Also, if the first card is not a queen then shouldn't we consider that case as well?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Two cards are picked randomly from a deck. What is the probability that if the first card is Spades, the second card will be a Queen?



      What I have so far:



      Let $A$ be the event the first card is Spades.



      Let $B$ be the event the second card is a Queen



      $$P(B|A) = frac{P(Acap B)}{P(A)}$$
      $$P(B|A) = frac{P(A)P(B|A)}{P(A)}$$
      $$P(B|A) = frac{frac{13}{52}P(B|A)}{frac{13}{52}}$$



      But now i get confused for $P(B|A)$ since its the problem im trying to solve in the first place... I know that $A$ and $B$ are dependent events since if a spade is drawn it could be the Queen spade.



      So we we remove that possibility, which would make the probability of drawing the second queen be $3/51$. But, if that $P(B|A) = 3/51$ wouldnt that be the solution to the question in the first place? What happend to the $13/52$ parts?Also, if the first card is not a queen then shouldn't we consider that case as well?







      statistics conditional-probability






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      edited Jan 10 at 0:05









      David G. Stork

      11k41432




      11k41432










      asked Jan 9 at 23:57









      shockwave88shockwave88

      122




      122






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Given the first card is a spade, there are two relevant cases: either the first card is the queen of spades (probability ${1 over 13}$), or it is a different spade (probability ${12 over 13}$).



          In the first case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${3 over 51}$. In the second case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${4 over 51}$. Hence:



          $$P({rm queen}|{rm spade}) = {1 over 13}{3 over 51}+ {12 over 13}{4 over 51} = {1 over 13}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Intuitively your answer makes perfect sense to me. However, in terms of the defined probability equation, i dont understand why it isnt $frac{frac{1}{13}frac{3}{51}}{frac{1}{13}}frac{frac{12}{13}frac{4}{51}}{frac{12}{13}} $
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:08












          • $begingroup$
            @shockwave88: Why it isn't what?
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            Jan 10 at 1:11










          • $begingroup$
            I updated the answer, if u dont mind answering it. I think its that way because of the denominator in the conditional probabilty equation.
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:28













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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          Given the first card is a spade, there are two relevant cases: either the first card is the queen of spades (probability ${1 over 13}$), or it is a different spade (probability ${12 over 13}$).



          In the first case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${3 over 51}$. In the second case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${4 over 51}$. Hence:



          $$P({rm queen}|{rm spade}) = {1 over 13}{3 over 51}+ {12 over 13}{4 over 51} = {1 over 13}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Intuitively your answer makes perfect sense to me. However, in terms of the defined probability equation, i dont understand why it isnt $frac{frac{1}{13}frac{3}{51}}{frac{1}{13}}frac{frac{12}{13}frac{4}{51}}{frac{12}{13}} $
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:08












          • $begingroup$
            @shockwave88: Why it isn't what?
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            Jan 10 at 1:11










          • $begingroup$
            I updated the answer, if u dont mind answering it. I think its that way because of the denominator in the conditional probabilty equation.
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:28


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Given the first card is a spade, there are two relevant cases: either the first card is the queen of spades (probability ${1 over 13}$), or it is a different spade (probability ${12 over 13}$).



          In the first case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${3 over 51}$. In the second case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${4 over 51}$. Hence:



          $$P({rm queen}|{rm spade}) = {1 over 13}{3 over 51}+ {12 over 13}{4 over 51} = {1 over 13}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Intuitively your answer makes perfect sense to me. However, in terms of the defined probability equation, i dont understand why it isnt $frac{frac{1}{13}frac{3}{51}}{frac{1}{13}}frac{frac{12}{13}frac{4}{51}}{frac{12}{13}} $
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:08












          • $begingroup$
            @shockwave88: Why it isn't what?
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            Jan 10 at 1:11










          • $begingroup$
            I updated the answer, if u dont mind answering it. I think its that way because of the denominator in the conditional probabilty equation.
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:28
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Given the first card is a spade, there are two relevant cases: either the first card is the queen of spades (probability ${1 over 13}$), or it is a different spade (probability ${12 over 13}$).



          In the first case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${3 over 51}$. In the second case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${4 over 51}$. Hence:



          $$P({rm queen}|{rm spade}) = {1 over 13}{3 over 51}+ {12 over 13}{4 over 51} = {1 over 13}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Given the first card is a spade, there are two relevant cases: either the first card is the queen of spades (probability ${1 over 13}$), or it is a different spade (probability ${12 over 13}$).



          In the first case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${3 over 51}$. In the second case, the probability the second card is a queen is ${4 over 51}$. Hence:



          $$P({rm queen}|{rm spade}) = {1 over 13}{3 over 51}+ {12 over 13}{4 over 51} = {1 over 13}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 10 at 0:10









          David G. StorkDavid G. Stork

          11k41432




          11k41432












          • $begingroup$
            Intuitively your answer makes perfect sense to me. However, in terms of the defined probability equation, i dont understand why it isnt $frac{frac{1}{13}frac{3}{51}}{frac{1}{13}}frac{frac{12}{13}frac{4}{51}}{frac{12}{13}} $
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:08












          • $begingroup$
            @shockwave88: Why it isn't what?
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            Jan 10 at 1:11










          • $begingroup$
            I updated the answer, if u dont mind answering it. I think its that way because of the denominator in the conditional probabilty equation.
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:28




















          • $begingroup$
            Intuitively your answer makes perfect sense to me. However, in terms of the defined probability equation, i dont understand why it isnt $frac{frac{1}{13}frac{3}{51}}{frac{1}{13}}frac{frac{12}{13}frac{4}{51}}{frac{12}{13}} $
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:08












          • $begingroup$
            @shockwave88: Why it isn't what?
            $endgroup$
            – David G. Stork
            Jan 10 at 1:11










          • $begingroup$
            I updated the answer, if u dont mind answering it. I think its that way because of the denominator in the conditional probabilty equation.
            $endgroup$
            – shockwave88
            Jan 10 at 1:28


















          $begingroup$
          Intuitively your answer makes perfect sense to me. However, in terms of the defined probability equation, i dont understand why it isnt $frac{frac{1}{13}frac{3}{51}}{frac{1}{13}}frac{frac{12}{13}frac{4}{51}}{frac{12}{13}} $
          $endgroup$
          – shockwave88
          Jan 10 at 1:08






          $begingroup$
          Intuitively your answer makes perfect sense to me. However, in terms of the defined probability equation, i dont understand why it isnt $frac{frac{1}{13}frac{3}{51}}{frac{1}{13}}frac{frac{12}{13}frac{4}{51}}{frac{12}{13}} $
          $endgroup$
          – shockwave88
          Jan 10 at 1:08














          $begingroup$
          @shockwave88: Why it isn't what?
          $endgroup$
          – David G. Stork
          Jan 10 at 1:11




          $begingroup$
          @shockwave88: Why it isn't what?
          $endgroup$
          – David G. Stork
          Jan 10 at 1:11












          $begingroup$
          I updated the answer, if u dont mind answering it. I think its that way because of the denominator in the conditional probabilty equation.
          $endgroup$
          – shockwave88
          Jan 10 at 1:28






          $begingroup$
          I updated the answer, if u dont mind answering it. I think its that way because of the denominator in the conditional probabilty equation.
          $endgroup$
          – shockwave88
          Jan 10 at 1:28




















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