If A is anti-hermitian, show that $|det(1+A)|^2 geqslant 1$
$begingroup$
Given that A is anti-hermitian, i.e. $A^dagger = -A$, show, by diagonalising $iA$, that $$|det(1+A)|^2 geqslant 1$$
$hspace{3mm}$
So what I thought was that I need to show that $det(1+A)[det(1+A)]^* geqslant 1$, i.e. $det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) geqslant 1$.
Since I know the determinant is equal to the product of the eigenvalues, I have found the eigenvalues of $(1+A)$ by $$(1+A)textbf{x} = ktextbf{x}$$
$$Atextbf{x}=(k-1)textbf{x}$$ $$Atextbf{x}=lambda textbf{x}$$ $$k=lambda +1$$
where $lambda$ is purely imaginary because A is anti-hermitian.
Similarly, I can show that the eigenvalue of $(1+A^dagger)=(1-A)$ to be $(1-lambda)$. Therefore, $$det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) = prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+lambda_i)(1-lambda_i)=prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+|lambda_i|^2) geqslant 1$$
However, I am not sure if this actually proves it, and especially I don't know why the question asks to diagonalize $iA$.
Thank you.
matrices determinant diagonalization
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Given that A is anti-hermitian, i.e. $A^dagger = -A$, show, by diagonalising $iA$, that $$|det(1+A)|^2 geqslant 1$$
$hspace{3mm}$
So what I thought was that I need to show that $det(1+A)[det(1+A)]^* geqslant 1$, i.e. $det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) geqslant 1$.
Since I know the determinant is equal to the product of the eigenvalues, I have found the eigenvalues of $(1+A)$ by $$(1+A)textbf{x} = ktextbf{x}$$
$$Atextbf{x}=(k-1)textbf{x}$$ $$Atextbf{x}=lambda textbf{x}$$ $$k=lambda +1$$
where $lambda$ is purely imaginary because A is anti-hermitian.
Similarly, I can show that the eigenvalue of $(1+A^dagger)=(1-A)$ to be $(1-lambda)$. Therefore, $$det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) = prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+lambda_i)(1-lambda_i)=prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+|lambda_i|^2) geqslant 1$$
However, I am not sure if this actually proves it, and especially I don't know why the question asks to diagonalize $iA$.
Thank you.
matrices determinant diagonalization
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Well, $iA$ is Hermitian, so its eigenvalues are real, so those of $A$ are purely imaginary.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 1 at 11:51
$begingroup$
@Lord Shark the Unknown So the questions asks us to diagonalise $iA$ so that we can show that eigenvalues of A are purely imaginary? Does it have no other purposes? What about the rest of my working, are they valid?
$endgroup$
– Student 1
Jan 1 at 11:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Given that A is anti-hermitian, i.e. $A^dagger = -A$, show, by diagonalising $iA$, that $$|det(1+A)|^2 geqslant 1$$
$hspace{3mm}$
So what I thought was that I need to show that $det(1+A)[det(1+A)]^* geqslant 1$, i.e. $det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) geqslant 1$.
Since I know the determinant is equal to the product of the eigenvalues, I have found the eigenvalues of $(1+A)$ by $$(1+A)textbf{x} = ktextbf{x}$$
$$Atextbf{x}=(k-1)textbf{x}$$ $$Atextbf{x}=lambda textbf{x}$$ $$k=lambda +1$$
where $lambda$ is purely imaginary because A is anti-hermitian.
Similarly, I can show that the eigenvalue of $(1+A^dagger)=(1-A)$ to be $(1-lambda)$. Therefore, $$det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) = prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+lambda_i)(1-lambda_i)=prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+|lambda_i|^2) geqslant 1$$
However, I am not sure if this actually proves it, and especially I don't know why the question asks to diagonalize $iA$.
Thank you.
matrices determinant diagonalization
$endgroup$
Given that A is anti-hermitian, i.e. $A^dagger = -A$, show, by diagonalising $iA$, that $$|det(1+A)|^2 geqslant 1$$
$hspace{3mm}$
So what I thought was that I need to show that $det(1+A)[det(1+A)]^* geqslant 1$, i.e. $det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) geqslant 1$.
Since I know the determinant is equal to the product of the eigenvalues, I have found the eigenvalues of $(1+A)$ by $$(1+A)textbf{x} = ktextbf{x}$$
$$Atextbf{x}=(k-1)textbf{x}$$ $$Atextbf{x}=lambda textbf{x}$$ $$k=lambda +1$$
where $lambda$ is purely imaginary because A is anti-hermitian.
Similarly, I can show that the eigenvalue of $(1+A^dagger)=(1-A)$ to be $(1-lambda)$. Therefore, $$det(1+A)det(1+A^dagger) = prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+lambda_i)(1-lambda_i)=prod_{i=1}^{n} (1+|lambda_i|^2) geqslant 1$$
However, I am not sure if this actually proves it, and especially I don't know why the question asks to diagonalize $iA$.
Thank you.
matrices determinant diagonalization
matrices determinant diagonalization
edited Jan 1 at 13:09
Botond
5,6982732
5,6982732
asked Jan 1 at 11:47
Student 1Student 1
668
668
1
$begingroup$
Well, $iA$ is Hermitian, so its eigenvalues are real, so those of $A$ are purely imaginary.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 1 at 11:51
$begingroup$
@Lord Shark the Unknown So the questions asks us to diagonalise $iA$ so that we can show that eigenvalues of A are purely imaginary? Does it have no other purposes? What about the rest of my working, are they valid?
$endgroup$
– Student 1
Jan 1 at 11:58
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Well, $iA$ is Hermitian, so its eigenvalues are real, so those of $A$ are purely imaginary.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 1 at 11:51
$begingroup$
@Lord Shark the Unknown So the questions asks us to diagonalise $iA$ so that we can show that eigenvalues of A are purely imaginary? Does it have no other purposes? What about the rest of my working, are they valid?
$endgroup$
– Student 1
Jan 1 at 11:58
1
1
$begingroup$
Well, $iA$ is Hermitian, so its eigenvalues are real, so those of $A$ are purely imaginary.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 1 at 11:51
$begingroup$
Well, $iA$ is Hermitian, so its eigenvalues are real, so those of $A$ are purely imaginary.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 1 at 11:51
$begingroup$
@Lord Shark the Unknown So the questions asks us to diagonalise $iA$ so that we can show that eigenvalues of A are purely imaginary? Does it have no other purposes? What about the rest of my working, are they valid?
$endgroup$
– Student 1
Jan 1 at 11:58
$begingroup$
@Lord Shark the Unknown So the questions asks us to diagonalise $iA$ so that we can show that eigenvalues of A are purely imaginary? Does it have no other purposes? What about the rest of my working, are they valid?
$endgroup$
– Student 1
Jan 1 at 11:58
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Well, $iA$ is Hermitian, so its eigenvalues are real, so those of $A$ are purely imaginary.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 1 at 11:51
$begingroup$
@Lord Shark the Unknown So the questions asks us to diagonalise $iA$ so that we can show that eigenvalues of A are purely imaginary? Does it have no other purposes? What about the rest of my working, are they valid?
$endgroup$
– Student 1
Jan 1 at 11:58