What is the probability of two samples are different if they have the same results for some aggregate...
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Imagine that I have a list of $N$ floating points numbers, and I take a sample of $n$ elements without replacement, calculate summation, mean and variance of the sample, replace the $n$ elements, take another sample of $n$ elements without replacement, and calculate summation, mean and variance of the second sample.
If the summations, means, and variances are the same between the two samples, what is the probability of the two samples are composed of the same numbers?
probability-theory statistics
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Imagine that I have a list of $N$ floating points numbers, and I take a sample of $n$ elements without replacement, calculate summation, mean and variance of the sample, replace the $n$ elements, take another sample of $n$ elements without replacement, and calculate summation, mean and variance of the second sample.
If the summations, means, and variances are the same between the two samples, what is the probability of the two samples are composed of the same numbers?
probability-theory statistics
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
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2
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The answer will depend on the number of significant figures you are working to and the size of your n's. The probability of two random normal variables being exactly the same is essentially zero, but two could be close enough that you may not see the difference when working with finite precision.
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– user121049
Jan 17 at 13:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Imagine that I have a list of $N$ floating points numbers, and I take a sample of $n$ elements without replacement, calculate summation, mean and variance of the sample, replace the $n$ elements, take another sample of $n$ elements without replacement, and calculate summation, mean and variance of the second sample.
If the summations, means, and variances are the same between the two samples, what is the probability of the two samples are composed of the same numbers?
probability-theory statistics
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
$endgroup$
Imagine that I have a list of $N$ floating points numbers, and I take a sample of $n$ elements without replacement, calculate summation, mean and variance of the sample, replace the $n$ elements, take another sample of $n$ elements without replacement, and calculate summation, mean and variance of the second sample.
If the summations, means, and variances are the same between the two samples, what is the probability of the two samples are composed of the same numbers?
probability-theory statistics
probability-theory statistics
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
edited Jan 17 at 16:34
José Florencio de Queiroz
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
asked Jan 17 at 13:02
José Florencio de QueirozJosé Florencio de Queiroz
63
63
2
$begingroup$
The answer will depend on the number of significant figures you are working to and the size of your n's. The probability of two random normal variables being exactly the same is essentially zero, but two could be close enough that you may not see the difference when working with finite precision.
$endgroup$
– user121049
Jan 17 at 13:49
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
The answer will depend on the number of significant figures you are working to and the size of your n's. The probability of two random normal variables being exactly the same is essentially zero, but two could be close enough that you may not see the difference when working with finite precision.
$endgroup$
– user121049
Jan 17 at 13:49
2
2
$begingroup$
The answer will depend on the number of significant figures you are working to and the size of your n's. The probability of two random normal variables being exactly the same is essentially zero, but two could be close enough that you may not see the difference when working with finite precision.
$endgroup$
– user121049
Jan 17 at 13:49
$begingroup$
The answer will depend on the number of significant figures you are working to and the size of your n's. The probability of two random normal variables being exactly the same is essentially zero, but two could be close enough that you may not see the difference when working with finite precision.
$endgroup$
– user121049
Jan 17 at 13:49
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The answer will depend on the number of significant figures you are working to and the size of your n's. The probability of two random normal variables being exactly the same is essentially zero, but two could be close enough that you may not see the difference when working with finite precision.
$endgroup$
– user121049
Jan 17 at 13:49