Matrix units in commutator subgroup












0












$begingroup$


Let $m ge 2$ be an integer, $R = M_{m}(K)$ be the algebra of all $mtimes m$ matrices over $K$ an infinite field, if $L = [R,R]$ and $a,p in R$ are non-zero elements. Then, if $[au, pu] = 0$ for all $u in L$, then $a= alpha p$ for some $alpha in K$.



I am reading a proof of above lemma and what I don't get is the following:



If $a = Sigma_{ij} a_{ij}e_{ij}$ and $p =Sigma_{ij} p_{ij}e_{ij}$ for some $a_{ij},p_{ij} in Kbackslash {0}$ with $1 le i,j le m$. Then, for every $1 le i neq j le m$ we have $0 = e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}] = (a_{ki}p_{ji} - p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}$



I can prove the first equality but have trouble with the second one. Is there some trick to see this or is this just plain calculation? I have tried to calculate the bracket explicitly by writing terms, but it gets a more complicated cause of matrix unit elements ($e_{ij}$). Maybe I missed some trivial detail, any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $m ge 2$ be an integer, $R = M_{m}(K)$ be the algebra of all $mtimes m$ matrices over $K$ an infinite field, if $L = [R,R]$ and $a,p in R$ are non-zero elements. Then, if $[au, pu] = 0$ for all $u in L$, then $a= alpha p$ for some $alpha in K$.



    I am reading a proof of above lemma and what I don't get is the following:



    If $a = Sigma_{ij} a_{ij}e_{ij}$ and $p =Sigma_{ij} p_{ij}e_{ij}$ for some $a_{ij},p_{ij} in Kbackslash {0}$ with $1 le i,j le m$. Then, for every $1 le i neq j le m$ we have $0 = e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}] = (a_{ki}p_{ji} - p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}$



    I can prove the first equality but have trouble with the second one. Is there some trick to see this or is this just plain calculation? I have tried to calculate the bracket explicitly by writing terms, but it gets a more complicated cause of matrix unit elements ($e_{ij}$). Maybe I missed some trivial detail, any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $m ge 2$ be an integer, $R = M_{m}(K)$ be the algebra of all $mtimes m$ matrices over $K$ an infinite field, if $L = [R,R]$ and $a,p in R$ are non-zero elements. Then, if $[au, pu] = 0$ for all $u in L$, then $a= alpha p$ for some $alpha in K$.



      I am reading a proof of above lemma and what I don't get is the following:



      If $a = Sigma_{ij} a_{ij}e_{ij}$ and $p =Sigma_{ij} p_{ij}e_{ij}$ for some $a_{ij},p_{ij} in Kbackslash {0}$ with $1 le i,j le m$. Then, for every $1 le i neq j le m$ we have $0 = e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}] = (a_{ki}p_{ji} - p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}$



      I can prove the first equality but have trouble with the second one. Is there some trick to see this or is this just plain calculation? I have tried to calculate the bracket explicitly by writing terms, but it gets a more complicated cause of matrix unit elements ($e_{ij}$). Maybe I missed some trivial detail, any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $m ge 2$ be an integer, $R = M_{m}(K)$ be the algebra of all $mtimes m$ matrices over $K$ an infinite field, if $L = [R,R]$ and $a,p in R$ are non-zero elements. Then, if $[au, pu] = 0$ for all $u in L$, then $a= alpha p$ for some $alpha in K$.



      I am reading a proof of above lemma and what I don't get is the following:



      If $a = Sigma_{ij} a_{ij}e_{ij}$ and $p =Sigma_{ij} p_{ij}e_{ij}$ for some $a_{ij},p_{ij} in Kbackslash {0}$ with $1 le i,j le m$. Then, for every $1 le i neq j le m$ we have $0 = e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}] = (a_{ki}p_{ji} - p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}$



      I can prove the first equality but have trouble with the second one. Is there some trick to see this or is this just plain calculation? I have tried to calculate the bracket explicitly by writing terms, but it gets a more complicated cause of matrix unit elements ($e_{ij}$). Maybe I missed some trivial detail, any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks.







      linear-algebra matrices ring-theory






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      edited Jan 17 at 16:44







      Mayank Mishra

















      asked Jan 17 at 13:10









      Mayank MishraMayank Mishra

      1318




      1318






















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          $begingroup$

          It can be obtained by direct calculation:
          begin{aligned}
          e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}]
          &=e_{kk}ae_{ij}pe_{ij}-e_{kk}pe_{ij}ae_{ij}\
          &=e_k(e_k^Tae_i)(e_j^Tpe_i)e_j^T-e_k(e_k^Tpe_i)(e_j^Tae_i)e_j^T\
          &=e_k(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_j^T\
          &=(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}.
          end{aligned}






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I got the trick in step 1 but I didn't get how you go from step 2 to step 3?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 16:54










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick In general, $e_k^TM$ is the $k$-th row of a matrix $M$ and $Me_i$ is the $i$-th column of $M$. Therefore, $e_k^Tae_i$ is the $i$-th column of the $k$-th row of $a$, i.e. the $(k,i)$-th entry of $a$, or $a_{ki}$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:03










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry for my unfamiliarity with matrix units, but what I read from wiki, isn't $e_{k}^{T}M = 0$ as they are product of $1times k$ and $mtimes m$ matrix?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:11










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick ${e_1,e_2,ldots,e_m}$ denotes the canonical basis of $K^m$ here. That is, $e_kin K^m$ is a column vector with $m$ entries, with a $1$ at the $k$-th position and zeroes elsewhere. E.g. when $m=3$, we have $e_1=(1,0,0)^T,,e_2=(0,1,0)^T$ and $e_3=(0,0,1)^T$. This is almost a standard notation in linear algebra. With this definition, we have $e_{rs}=e_re_s^T$ for any $r,s$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:43












          • $begingroup$
            Oh, it was simple, just got confused with notations. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:49












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          $begingroup$

          It can be obtained by direct calculation:
          begin{aligned}
          e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}]
          &=e_{kk}ae_{ij}pe_{ij}-e_{kk}pe_{ij}ae_{ij}\
          &=e_k(e_k^Tae_i)(e_j^Tpe_i)e_j^T-e_k(e_k^Tpe_i)(e_j^Tae_i)e_j^T\
          &=e_k(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_j^T\
          &=(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}.
          end{aligned}






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I got the trick in step 1 but I didn't get how you go from step 2 to step 3?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 16:54










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick In general, $e_k^TM$ is the $k$-th row of a matrix $M$ and $Me_i$ is the $i$-th column of $M$. Therefore, $e_k^Tae_i$ is the $i$-th column of the $k$-th row of $a$, i.e. the $(k,i)$-th entry of $a$, or $a_{ki}$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:03










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry for my unfamiliarity with matrix units, but what I read from wiki, isn't $e_{k}^{T}M = 0$ as they are product of $1times k$ and $mtimes m$ matrix?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:11










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick ${e_1,e_2,ldots,e_m}$ denotes the canonical basis of $K^m$ here. That is, $e_kin K^m$ is a column vector with $m$ entries, with a $1$ at the $k$-th position and zeroes elsewhere. E.g. when $m=3$, we have $e_1=(1,0,0)^T,,e_2=(0,1,0)^T$ and $e_3=(0,0,1)^T$. This is almost a standard notation in linear algebra. With this definition, we have $e_{rs}=e_re_s^T$ for any $r,s$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:43












          • $begingroup$
            Oh, it was simple, just got confused with notations. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:49
















          1












          $begingroup$

          It can be obtained by direct calculation:
          begin{aligned}
          e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}]
          &=e_{kk}ae_{ij}pe_{ij}-e_{kk}pe_{ij}ae_{ij}\
          &=e_k(e_k^Tae_i)(e_j^Tpe_i)e_j^T-e_k(e_k^Tpe_i)(e_j^Tae_i)e_j^T\
          &=e_k(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_j^T\
          &=(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}.
          end{aligned}






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I got the trick in step 1 but I didn't get how you go from step 2 to step 3?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 16:54










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick In general, $e_k^TM$ is the $k$-th row of a matrix $M$ and $Me_i$ is the $i$-th column of $M$. Therefore, $e_k^Tae_i$ is the $i$-th column of the $k$-th row of $a$, i.e. the $(k,i)$-th entry of $a$, or $a_{ki}$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:03










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry for my unfamiliarity with matrix units, but what I read from wiki, isn't $e_{k}^{T}M = 0$ as they are product of $1times k$ and $mtimes m$ matrix?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:11










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick ${e_1,e_2,ldots,e_m}$ denotes the canonical basis of $K^m$ here. That is, $e_kin K^m$ is a column vector with $m$ entries, with a $1$ at the $k$-th position and zeroes elsewhere. E.g. when $m=3$, we have $e_1=(1,0,0)^T,,e_2=(0,1,0)^T$ and $e_3=(0,0,1)^T$. This is almost a standard notation in linear algebra. With this definition, we have $e_{rs}=e_re_s^T$ for any $r,s$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:43












          • $begingroup$
            Oh, it was simple, just got confused with notations. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:49














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          It can be obtained by direct calculation:
          begin{aligned}
          e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}]
          &=e_{kk}ae_{ij}pe_{ij}-e_{kk}pe_{ij}ae_{ij}\
          &=e_k(e_k^Tae_i)(e_j^Tpe_i)e_j^T-e_k(e_k^Tpe_i)(e_j^Tae_i)e_j^T\
          &=e_k(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_j^T\
          &=(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}.
          end{aligned}






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          It can be obtained by direct calculation:
          begin{aligned}
          e_{kk}[ae_{ij},pe_{ij}]
          &=e_{kk}ae_{ij}pe_{ij}-e_{kk}pe_{ij}ae_{ij}\
          &=e_k(e_k^Tae_i)(e_j^Tpe_i)e_j^T-e_k(e_k^Tpe_i)(e_j^Tae_i)e_j^T\
          &=e_k(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_j^T\
          &=(a_{ki}p_{ji}-p_{ki}a_{ji})e_{kj}.
          end{aligned}







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 17 at 14:56









          user1551user1551

          74.3k566129




          74.3k566129












          • $begingroup$
            I got the trick in step 1 but I didn't get how you go from step 2 to step 3?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 16:54










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick In general, $e_k^TM$ is the $k$-th row of a matrix $M$ and $Me_i$ is the $i$-th column of $M$. Therefore, $e_k^Tae_i$ is the $i$-th column of the $k$-th row of $a$, i.e. the $(k,i)$-th entry of $a$, or $a_{ki}$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:03










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry for my unfamiliarity with matrix units, but what I read from wiki, isn't $e_{k}^{T}M = 0$ as they are product of $1times k$ and $mtimes m$ matrix?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:11










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick ${e_1,e_2,ldots,e_m}$ denotes the canonical basis of $K^m$ here. That is, $e_kin K^m$ is a column vector with $m$ entries, with a $1$ at the $k$-th position and zeroes elsewhere. E.g. when $m=3$, we have $e_1=(1,0,0)^T,,e_2=(0,1,0)^T$ and $e_3=(0,0,1)^T$. This is almost a standard notation in linear algebra. With this definition, we have $e_{rs}=e_re_s^T$ for any $r,s$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:43












          • $begingroup$
            Oh, it was simple, just got confused with notations. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:49


















          • $begingroup$
            I got the trick in step 1 but I didn't get how you go from step 2 to step 3?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 16:54










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick In general, $e_k^TM$ is the $k$-th row of a matrix $M$ and $Me_i$ is the $i$-th column of $M$. Therefore, $e_k^Tae_i$ is the $i$-th column of the $k$-th row of $a$, i.e. the $(k,i)$-th entry of $a$, or $a_{ki}$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:03










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry for my unfamiliarity with matrix units, but what I read from wiki, isn't $e_{k}^{T}M = 0$ as they are product of $1times k$ and $mtimes m$ matrix?
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:11










          • $begingroup$
            @Rick ${e_1,e_2,ldots,e_m}$ denotes the canonical basis of $K^m$ here. That is, $e_kin K^m$ is a column vector with $m$ entries, with a $1$ at the $k$-th position and zeroes elsewhere. E.g. when $m=3$, we have $e_1=(1,0,0)^T,,e_2=(0,1,0)^T$ and $e_3=(0,0,1)^T$. This is almost a standard notation in linear algebra. With this definition, we have $e_{rs}=e_re_s^T$ for any $r,s$.
            $endgroup$
            – user1551
            Jan 17 at 17:43












          • $begingroup$
            Oh, it was simple, just got confused with notations. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – Mayank Mishra
            Jan 17 at 17:49
















          $begingroup$
          I got the trick in step 1 but I didn't get how you go from step 2 to step 3?
          $endgroup$
          – Mayank Mishra
          Jan 17 at 16:54




          $begingroup$
          I got the trick in step 1 but I didn't get how you go from step 2 to step 3?
          $endgroup$
          – Mayank Mishra
          Jan 17 at 16:54












          $begingroup$
          @Rick In general, $e_k^TM$ is the $k$-th row of a matrix $M$ and $Me_i$ is the $i$-th column of $M$. Therefore, $e_k^Tae_i$ is the $i$-th column of the $k$-th row of $a$, i.e. the $(k,i)$-th entry of $a$, or $a_{ki}$.
          $endgroup$
          – user1551
          Jan 17 at 17:03




          $begingroup$
          @Rick In general, $e_k^TM$ is the $k$-th row of a matrix $M$ and $Me_i$ is the $i$-th column of $M$. Therefore, $e_k^Tae_i$ is the $i$-th column of the $k$-th row of $a$, i.e. the $(k,i)$-th entry of $a$, or $a_{ki}$.
          $endgroup$
          – user1551
          Jan 17 at 17:03












          $begingroup$
          Sorry for my unfamiliarity with matrix units, but what I read from wiki, isn't $e_{k}^{T}M = 0$ as they are product of $1times k$ and $mtimes m$ matrix?
          $endgroup$
          – Mayank Mishra
          Jan 17 at 17:11




          $begingroup$
          Sorry for my unfamiliarity with matrix units, but what I read from wiki, isn't $e_{k}^{T}M = 0$ as they are product of $1times k$ and $mtimes m$ matrix?
          $endgroup$
          – Mayank Mishra
          Jan 17 at 17:11












          $begingroup$
          @Rick ${e_1,e_2,ldots,e_m}$ denotes the canonical basis of $K^m$ here. That is, $e_kin K^m$ is a column vector with $m$ entries, with a $1$ at the $k$-th position and zeroes elsewhere. E.g. when $m=3$, we have $e_1=(1,0,0)^T,,e_2=(0,1,0)^T$ and $e_3=(0,0,1)^T$. This is almost a standard notation in linear algebra. With this definition, we have $e_{rs}=e_re_s^T$ for any $r,s$.
          $endgroup$
          – user1551
          Jan 17 at 17:43






          $begingroup$
          @Rick ${e_1,e_2,ldots,e_m}$ denotes the canonical basis of $K^m$ here. That is, $e_kin K^m$ is a column vector with $m$ entries, with a $1$ at the $k$-th position and zeroes elsewhere. E.g. when $m=3$, we have $e_1=(1,0,0)^T,,e_2=(0,1,0)^T$ and $e_3=(0,0,1)^T$. This is almost a standard notation in linear algebra. With this definition, we have $e_{rs}=e_re_s^T$ for any $r,s$.
          $endgroup$
          – user1551
          Jan 17 at 17:43














          $begingroup$
          Oh, it was simple, just got confused with notations. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – Mayank Mishra
          Jan 17 at 17:49




          $begingroup$
          Oh, it was simple, just got confused with notations. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – Mayank Mishra
          Jan 17 at 17:49


















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