Positivity of Currents












5














I already asked about this a couple of weeks ago but had introduced some rather annoying notation. I decided to reformulate the question in a more compact format. (edit: old post taken down as it is basically a duplicate now)



Suppose $psi$ is the complex differential $(1,1)$-form $$psi = i sum_{j,k=1}^n h_{j,k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k$$
and that the matrix $H$ with entries $h_{j,k}$ is hermitian (i.e. $psi$ is a real form). In a lecture of mine, it was given as an exercise that $psi$ is positive (i.e. $psi(v,Jv) > 0$ for all $v ne 0$, where $J$ is the canonical almost complex structure) if and only if $H$ is positive-definite.



This differential form induces a current by integration, $$T_{psi} ~colon ~ Omega^{n-1,n-1}_c(mathbb{C^n}) rightarrow mathbb{C}, ~ phi mapsto int_{mathbb{C^n}} psi wedge phi.$$
In Harris and Griffiths' textbook "Principles of Algebraic Geometry" (on page 386 with $p=1$), a real $(1,1)$-current is defined to be positive if for every $(n-1,0)$-form $eta$ we have that $T(eta wedge bar{eta})$ is a non-negative real number.



Take such a test form $$eta = sum_{j=1}^n phi_j ~dz_J,$$ where $dz_J$ denotes $dz_1 wedge dots wedge hat{dz_j} wedge dots wedge dz_n$. Then we have $$eta wedge bar{eta} = sum_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K$$ and
begin{align*}
T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) &= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K \
&= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n,
end{align*}

where $sigma(j,k)$ denotes the sign coming from $$dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K = sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z_1} wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n.$$
Thus, the current $T_{psi}$ is positive not if $H$ is positive definite but if the matrix with entries $sigma(j,k) h_{j,k}$ is positive definite.



Is it true that positivity of currents and positivity of differential forms do not give rise to the same notion? Can this be fixed?










share|cite|improve this question





























    5














    I already asked about this a couple of weeks ago but had introduced some rather annoying notation. I decided to reformulate the question in a more compact format. (edit: old post taken down as it is basically a duplicate now)



    Suppose $psi$ is the complex differential $(1,1)$-form $$psi = i sum_{j,k=1}^n h_{j,k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k$$
    and that the matrix $H$ with entries $h_{j,k}$ is hermitian (i.e. $psi$ is a real form). In a lecture of mine, it was given as an exercise that $psi$ is positive (i.e. $psi(v,Jv) > 0$ for all $v ne 0$, where $J$ is the canonical almost complex structure) if and only if $H$ is positive-definite.



    This differential form induces a current by integration, $$T_{psi} ~colon ~ Omega^{n-1,n-1}_c(mathbb{C^n}) rightarrow mathbb{C}, ~ phi mapsto int_{mathbb{C^n}} psi wedge phi.$$
    In Harris and Griffiths' textbook "Principles of Algebraic Geometry" (on page 386 with $p=1$), a real $(1,1)$-current is defined to be positive if for every $(n-1,0)$-form $eta$ we have that $T(eta wedge bar{eta})$ is a non-negative real number.



    Take such a test form $$eta = sum_{j=1}^n phi_j ~dz_J,$$ where $dz_J$ denotes $dz_1 wedge dots wedge hat{dz_j} wedge dots wedge dz_n$. Then we have $$eta wedge bar{eta} = sum_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K$$ and
    begin{align*}
    T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) &= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K \
    &= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n,
    end{align*}

    where $sigma(j,k)$ denotes the sign coming from $$dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K = sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z_1} wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n.$$
    Thus, the current $T_{psi}$ is positive not if $H$ is positive definite but if the matrix with entries $sigma(j,k) h_{j,k}$ is positive definite.



    Is it true that positivity of currents and positivity of differential forms do not give rise to the same notion? Can this be fixed?










    share|cite|improve this question



























      5












      5








      5







      I already asked about this a couple of weeks ago but had introduced some rather annoying notation. I decided to reformulate the question in a more compact format. (edit: old post taken down as it is basically a duplicate now)



      Suppose $psi$ is the complex differential $(1,1)$-form $$psi = i sum_{j,k=1}^n h_{j,k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k$$
      and that the matrix $H$ with entries $h_{j,k}$ is hermitian (i.e. $psi$ is a real form). In a lecture of mine, it was given as an exercise that $psi$ is positive (i.e. $psi(v,Jv) > 0$ for all $v ne 0$, where $J$ is the canonical almost complex structure) if and only if $H$ is positive-definite.



      This differential form induces a current by integration, $$T_{psi} ~colon ~ Omega^{n-1,n-1}_c(mathbb{C^n}) rightarrow mathbb{C}, ~ phi mapsto int_{mathbb{C^n}} psi wedge phi.$$
      In Harris and Griffiths' textbook "Principles of Algebraic Geometry" (on page 386 with $p=1$), a real $(1,1)$-current is defined to be positive if for every $(n-1,0)$-form $eta$ we have that $T(eta wedge bar{eta})$ is a non-negative real number.



      Take such a test form $$eta = sum_{j=1}^n phi_j ~dz_J,$$ where $dz_J$ denotes $dz_1 wedge dots wedge hat{dz_j} wedge dots wedge dz_n$. Then we have $$eta wedge bar{eta} = sum_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K$$ and
      begin{align*}
      T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) &= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K \
      &= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n,
      end{align*}

      where $sigma(j,k)$ denotes the sign coming from $$dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K = sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z_1} wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n.$$
      Thus, the current $T_{psi}$ is positive not if $H$ is positive definite but if the matrix with entries $sigma(j,k) h_{j,k}$ is positive definite.



      Is it true that positivity of currents and positivity of differential forms do not give rise to the same notion? Can this be fixed?










      share|cite|improve this question















      I already asked about this a couple of weeks ago but had introduced some rather annoying notation. I decided to reformulate the question in a more compact format. (edit: old post taken down as it is basically a duplicate now)



      Suppose $psi$ is the complex differential $(1,1)$-form $$psi = i sum_{j,k=1}^n h_{j,k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k$$
      and that the matrix $H$ with entries $h_{j,k}$ is hermitian (i.e. $psi$ is a real form). In a lecture of mine, it was given as an exercise that $psi$ is positive (i.e. $psi(v,Jv) > 0$ for all $v ne 0$, where $J$ is the canonical almost complex structure) if and only if $H$ is positive-definite.



      This differential form induces a current by integration, $$T_{psi} ~colon ~ Omega^{n-1,n-1}_c(mathbb{C^n}) rightarrow mathbb{C}, ~ phi mapsto int_{mathbb{C^n}} psi wedge phi.$$
      In Harris and Griffiths' textbook "Principles of Algebraic Geometry" (on page 386 with $p=1$), a real $(1,1)$-current is defined to be positive if for every $(n-1,0)$-form $eta$ we have that $T(eta wedge bar{eta})$ is a non-negative real number.



      Take such a test form $$eta = sum_{j=1}^n phi_j ~dz_J,$$ where $dz_J$ denotes $dz_1 wedge dots wedge hat{dz_j} wedge dots wedge dz_n$. Then we have $$eta wedge bar{eta} = sum_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K$$ and
      begin{align*}
      T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) &= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K \
      &= i sum_{j,k} int h_{j,k} phi_j overline{phi_k} ~sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n,
      end{align*}

      where $sigma(j,k)$ denotes the sign coming from $$dz_j wedge dbar{z}_k wedge dz_J wedge dbar{z}_K = sigma(j,k) ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z_1} wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n.$$
      Thus, the current $T_{psi}$ is positive not if $H$ is positive definite but if the matrix with entries $sigma(j,k) h_{j,k}$ is positive definite.



      Is it true that positivity of currents and positivity of differential forms do not give rise to the same notion? Can this be fixed?







      complex-analysis algebraic-geometry differential-topology complex-geometry






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      edited Dec 26 at 11:52

























      asked Nov 28 at 20:18









      Florian R

      385110




      385110






















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          Revisiting my question after a month, I finally realized that the answer is frustratingly simple...



          The sign $sigma(j,k)$ can be written explicitly as
          $$ sigma(j,k) = (-1)^{n-1 + frac{n(n-1)}{2}} (-1)^{j-1} (-1)^{k-1}. $$
          The crucial (yet simple) observation is that the matrix with entries $(-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k}$ is positive definite if and only if the matrix with entries $h_{j,k}$ is.
          Thus, the two notions of positivity agree up to a sign that depends only on $n$.



          In the following I would like to propose a correction to the definition in Harris and Griffiths' book.
          (Remark: to some extend, their definition already seems to be flawed as the exponent of the $i$ does not depend on $n$.)
          Let us say that a real $(p,p)$-current $T$ is positive if for any compactly supported $(n-p,0)$-test form $eta$ we have
          $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} i^{n-p} T(eta wedge bar{eta}) geq 0. $$
          For $T=T_{psi}$ as in the question we get ($p=1$)
          $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{2}} i^{n-1} T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) =\
          = i^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n \
          = 2^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_n wedge dy_n, $$

          where the sign from the definition of positivity cancels with the sign in $sigma(j,k)$.
          Thus, $T_{psi}$ is positive if and only if this integral is always positive if and only if $((-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $(h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $psi$ is positive, as desired.



          To further motivate the particular choice of sign in the definition (for now, we only verified it for $p=1$), let us consider the current defined by integration over $mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0} subset mathbb{C}^n$, which ought to be a positive current.
          Indeed,
          $$ int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} phi bar{phi} ~dz_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
          = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
          = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} (-2i)^{n-p} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_{n-p} wedge dy_{n-p}. $$






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            Revisiting my question after a month, I finally realized that the answer is frustratingly simple...



            The sign $sigma(j,k)$ can be written explicitly as
            $$ sigma(j,k) = (-1)^{n-1 + frac{n(n-1)}{2}} (-1)^{j-1} (-1)^{k-1}. $$
            The crucial (yet simple) observation is that the matrix with entries $(-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k}$ is positive definite if and only if the matrix with entries $h_{j,k}$ is.
            Thus, the two notions of positivity agree up to a sign that depends only on $n$.



            In the following I would like to propose a correction to the definition in Harris and Griffiths' book.
            (Remark: to some extend, their definition already seems to be flawed as the exponent of the $i$ does not depend on $n$.)
            Let us say that a real $(p,p)$-current $T$ is positive if for any compactly supported $(n-p,0)$-test form $eta$ we have
            $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} i^{n-p} T(eta wedge bar{eta}) geq 0. $$
            For $T=T_{psi}$ as in the question we get ($p=1$)
            $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{2}} i^{n-1} T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) =\
            = i^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n \
            = 2^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_n wedge dy_n, $$

            where the sign from the definition of positivity cancels with the sign in $sigma(j,k)$.
            Thus, $T_{psi}$ is positive if and only if this integral is always positive if and only if $((-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $(h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $psi$ is positive, as desired.



            To further motivate the particular choice of sign in the definition (for now, we only verified it for $p=1$), let us consider the current defined by integration over $mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0} subset mathbb{C}^n$, which ought to be a positive current.
            Indeed,
            $$ int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} phi bar{phi} ~dz_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
            = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
            = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} (-2i)^{n-p} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_{n-p} wedge dy_{n-p}. $$






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              1














              Revisiting my question after a month, I finally realized that the answer is frustratingly simple...



              The sign $sigma(j,k)$ can be written explicitly as
              $$ sigma(j,k) = (-1)^{n-1 + frac{n(n-1)}{2}} (-1)^{j-1} (-1)^{k-1}. $$
              The crucial (yet simple) observation is that the matrix with entries $(-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k}$ is positive definite if and only if the matrix with entries $h_{j,k}$ is.
              Thus, the two notions of positivity agree up to a sign that depends only on $n$.



              In the following I would like to propose a correction to the definition in Harris and Griffiths' book.
              (Remark: to some extend, their definition already seems to be flawed as the exponent of the $i$ does not depend on $n$.)
              Let us say that a real $(p,p)$-current $T$ is positive if for any compactly supported $(n-p,0)$-test form $eta$ we have
              $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} i^{n-p} T(eta wedge bar{eta}) geq 0. $$
              For $T=T_{psi}$ as in the question we get ($p=1$)
              $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{2}} i^{n-1} T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) =\
              = i^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n \
              = 2^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_n wedge dy_n, $$

              where the sign from the definition of positivity cancels with the sign in $sigma(j,k)$.
              Thus, $T_{psi}$ is positive if and only if this integral is always positive if and only if $((-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $(h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $psi$ is positive, as desired.



              To further motivate the particular choice of sign in the definition (for now, we only verified it for $p=1$), let us consider the current defined by integration over $mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0} subset mathbb{C}^n$, which ought to be a positive current.
              Indeed,
              $$ int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} phi bar{phi} ~dz_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
              = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
              = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} (-2i)^{n-p} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_{n-p} wedge dy_{n-p}. $$






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                1












                1








                1






                Revisiting my question after a month, I finally realized that the answer is frustratingly simple...



                The sign $sigma(j,k)$ can be written explicitly as
                $$ sigma(j,k) = (-1)^{n-1 + frac{n(n-1)}{2}} (-1)^{j-1} (-1)^{k-1}. $$
                The crucial (yet simple) observation is that the matrix with entries $(-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k}$ is positive definite if and only if the matrix with entries $h_{j,k}$ is.
                Thus, the two notions of positivity agree up to a sign that depends only on $n$.



                In the following I would like to propose a correction to the definition in Harris and Griffiths' book.
                (Remark: to some extend, their definition already seems to be flawed as the exponent of the $i$ does not depend on $n$.)
                Let us say that a real $(p,p)$-current $T$ is positive if for any compactly supported $(n-p,0)$-test form $eta$ we have
                $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} i^{n-p} T(eta wedge bar{eta}) geq 0. $$
                For $T=T_{psi}$ as in the question we get ($p=1$)
                $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{2}} i^{n-1} T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) =\
                = i^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n \
                = 2^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_n wedge dy_n, $$

                where the sign from the definition of positivity cancels with the sign in $sigma(j,k)$.
                Thus, $T_{psi}$ is positive if and only if this integral is always positive if and only if $((-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $(h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $psi$ is positive, as desired.



                To further motivate the particular choice of sign in the definition (for now, we only verified it for $p=1$), let us consider the current defined by integration over $mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0} subset mathbb{C}^n$, which ought to be a positive current.
                Indeed,
                $$ int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} phi bar{phi} ~dz_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
                = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
                = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} (-2i)^{n-p} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_{n-p} wedge dy_{n-p}. $$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Revisiting my question after a month, I finally realized that the answer is frustratingly simple...



                The sign $sigma(j,k)$ can be written explicitly as
                $$ sigma(j,k) = (-1)^{n-1 + frac{n(n-1)}{2}} (-1)^{j-1} (-1)^{k-1}. $$
                The crucial (yet simple) observation is that the matrix with entries $(-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k}$ is positive definite if and only if the matrix with entries $h_{j,k}$ is.
                Thus, the two notions of positivity agree up to a sign that depends only on $n$.



                In the following I would like to propose a correction to the definition in Harris and Griffiths' book.
                (Remark: to some extend, their definition already seems to be flawed as the exponent of the $i$ does not depend on $n$.)
                Let us say that a real $(p,p)$-current $T$ is positive if for any compactly supported $(n-p,0)$-test form $eta$ we have
                $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} i^{n-p} T(eta wedge bar{eta}) geq 0. $$
                For $T=T_{psi}$ as in the question we get ($p=1$)
                $$ (-1)^{frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{2}} i^{n-1} T_{psi}(eta wedge bar{eta}) =\
                = i^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_n wedge dbar{z}_n \
                = 2^n int_{mathbb{C}^n} left( sum_{j,k=1}^n (-1)^{j+k} phi_j h_{j,k} bar{phi}_k right) dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_n wedge dy_n, $$

                where the sign from the definition of positivity cancels with the sign in $sigma(j,k)$.
                Thus, $T_{psi}$ is positive if and only if this integral is always positive if and only if $((-1)^{j+k}h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $(h_{j,k})$ is positive definite if and only if $psi$ is positive, as desired.



                To further motivate the particular choice of sign in the definition (for now, we only verified it for $p=1$), let us consider the current defined by integration over $mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0} subset mathbb{C}^n$, which ought to be a positive current.
                Indeed,
                $$ int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} phi bar{phi} ~dz_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
                = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dz_1 wedge dbar{z}_1 wedge dots wedge dz_{n-p} wedge dbar{z}_{n-p} \
                = (-1)^{frac{(n-p)(n-p-1)}{2}} (-2i)^{n-p} int_{mathbb{C}^{n-p} times {0}} |phi|^2 ~dx_1 wedge dy_1 wedge dots wedge dx_{n-p} wedge dy_{n-p}. $$







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                answered Dec 26 at 11:48









                Florian R

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