Is a dense set always infinite?












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Learning about dense sets the classical example is that of $mathbb Q$, the rationals, in $mathbb R$. The same interpretation is valid for irrationals in $mathbb R$. I was wondering if a dense set needs to be infinite, because this is what intuition would suggest. Moreover, are dense sets always countably infinite?










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  • $begingroup$
    $mathbb R$ is a dense subset of itself. The irrationals are a dense subset of $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Feb 3 at 15:57










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    Even if we restrict to, lets say, the interval $[0,1]$ , no finite set can be dense in that interval.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Feb 3 at 16:03










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    The definition of a topological space is very broad, that is, it is not very restrictive. In the discrete topology on a set S, every subset of S is open (and also closed), and the only dense set is S..... On the other hand if S is a sub-space of $Bbb R$ (with the usual topology), then S does have at least one countable dense subset.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Feb 4 at 2:13


















6












$begingroup$


Learning about dense sets the classical example is that of $mathbb Q$, the rationals, in $mathbb R$. The same interpretation is valid for irrationals in $mathbb R$. I was wondering if a dense set needs to be infinite, because this is what intuition would suggest. Moreover, are dense sets always countably infinite?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    $mathbb R$ is a dense subset of itself. The irrationals are a dense subset of $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Feb 3 at 15:57










  • $begingroup$
    Even if we restrict to, lets say, the interval $[0,1]$ , no finite set can be dense in that interval.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Feb 3 at 16:03










  • $begingroup$
    The definition of a topological space is very broad, that is, it is not very restrictive. In the discrete topology on a set S, every subset of S is open (and also closed), and the only dense set is S..... On the other hand if S is a sub-space of $Bbb R$ (with the usual topology), then S does have at least one countable dense subset.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Feb 4 at 2:13
















6












6








6





$begingroup$


Learning about dense sets the classical example is that of $mathbb Q$, the rationals, in $mathbb R$. The same interpretation is valid for irrationals in $mathbb R$. I was wondering if a dense set needs to be infinite, because this is what intuition would suggest. Moreover, are dense sets always countably infinite?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Learning about dense sets the classical example is that of $mathbb Q$, the rationals, in $mathbb R$. The same interpretation is valid for irrationals in $mathbb R$. I was wondering if a dense set needs to be infinite, because this is what intuition would suggest. Moreover, are dense sets always countably infinite?







real-analysis general-topology






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edited Feb 3 at 16:58









J. W. Tanner

3,5851320




3,5851320










asked Feb 3 at 15:53









Gabriele ScarlattiGabriele Scarlatti

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380212












  • $begingroup$
    $mathbb R$ is a dense subset of itself. The irrationals are a dense subset of $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Feb 3 at 15:57










  • $begingroup$
    Even if we restrict to, lets say, the interval $[0,1]$ , no finite set can be dense in that interval.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Feb 3 at 16:03










  • $begingroup$
    The definition of a topological space is very broad, that is, it is not very restrictive. In the discrete topology on a set S, every subset of S is open (and also closed), and the only dense set is S..... On the other hand if S is a sub-space of $Bbb R$ (with the usual topology), then S does have at least one countable dense subset.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Feb 4 at 2:13




















  • $begingroup$
    $mathbb R$ is a dense subset of itself. The irrationals are a dense subset of $mathbb R$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Feb 3 at 15:57










  • $begingroup$
    Even if we restrict to, lets say, the interval $[0,1]$ , no finite set can be dense in that interval.
    $endgroup$
    – Peter
    Feb 3 at 16:03










  • $begingroup$
    The definition of a topological space is very broad, that is, it is not very restrictive. In the discrete topology on a set S, every subset of S is open (and also closed), and the only dense set is S..... On the other hand if S is a sub-space of $Bbb R$ (with the usual topology), then S does have at least one countable dense subset.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Feb 4 at 2:13


















$begingroup$
$mathbb R$ is a dense subset of itself. The irrationals are a dense subset of $mathbb R$.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 3 at 15:57




$begingroup$
$mathbb R$ is a dense subset of itself. The irrationals are a dense subset of $mathbb R$.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Feb 3 at 15:57












$begingroup$
Even if we restrict to, lets say, the interval $[0,1]$ , no finite set can be dense in that interval.
$endgroup$
– Peter
Feb 3 at 16:03




$begingroup$
Even if we restrict to, lets say, the interval $[0,1]$ , no finite set can be dense in that interval.
$endgroup$
– Peter
Feb 3 at 16:03












$begingroup$
The definition of a topological space is very broad, that is, it is not very restrictive. In the discrete topology on a set S, every subset of S is open (and also closed), and the only dense set is S..... On the other hand if S is a sub-space of $Bbb R$ (with the usual topology), then S does have at least one countable dense subset.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Feb 4 at 2:13






$begingroup$
The definition of a topological space is very broad, that is, it is not very restrictive. In the discrete topology on a set S, every subset of S is open (and also closed), and the only dense set is S..... On the other hand if S is a sub-space of $Bbb R$ (with the usual topology), then S does have at least one countable dense subset.
$endgroup$
– DanielWainfleet
Feb 4 at 2:13












5 Answers
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19












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To answer the general question of "are dense sets always infinite": no, because certainly, if $X$ is a finite topological space, then $X$ is dense in itself.



For another example, if $X$ is any set with the indiscrete topology, then every nonempty subset of $X$ is dense.



For yet another example, let $X = mathbb{R}$ with the topology determined by the Kuratowski closure operator
$$operatorname{cl}(S) = begin{cases} S, & 0 notin S; \ mathbb{R}, & 0 in S.end{cases}$$
Then ${ 0 }$ is dense in $X$, yet $X$ is $T_0$. (In fact, this example can easily be modified to give a $T_0$ topological space of any desired cardinality such that some single point is dense.)



On the other hand, in a $T_1$ topological space, every finite subset is closed. So, if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite. Or, for the contrapositive, if $X$ is an infinite $T_1$ topological space, then every dense subset of $X$ is infinite.






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  • 5




    $begingroup$
    Your "certainly" is dreadfully ambiguous here, and I imagine some non-native speakers will be scratching there heads over it. One meaning of "certainly" is "yes, definitely"! I suggest replacing it with "no" :-)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    Feb 3 at 22:33












  • $begingroup$
    Re: "if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite": More specifically, $X$ itself must be that finite subset. A finite proper subset of a $T_1$ space cannot be dense.
    $endgroup$
    – ruakh
    Feb 3 at 22:58






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of changing "certainly" to "no, because certainly".
    $endgroup$
    – Tanner Swett
    Feb 4 at 1:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Ryan's answer illustrates my point beautifully!
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    Feb 4 at 10:19










  • $begingroup$
    @TonyK Good point, agreed.
    $endgroup$
    – Daniel Schepler
    Feb 4 at 18:56



















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A dense set of the reals is always infinite. It need not be countable: For example, the reals are dense in themselves.



And a dense set needs not be infinite either. For example, ${1}$ is a finite set that is dense in itself.






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  • $begingroup$
    This is true for the reals with the usual topology, but it isn't true for other topologies (like the indiscrete topology mentioned in the accepted answer).
    $endgroup$
    – probably_someone
    Feb 4 at 2:22



















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Every dense subset of $mathbb R$ is infinite. A finite set has a maximum so it clearly cannot be dense. Dense subsets of $mathbb R$ need not be countable; for example, the irrational numbers and the entire set $mathbb R$ are both uncountable and dense.






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    In an infinite metric space any dense set must be infinite too: all finite sets are closed and so their closure ( the same finite set) cannot equal the whole space. One dense set is the whole space, so it need not be countable, unless the whole space is.






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      Certainly a set dense in the real line must be infinite: if $X$ is a finite subset of the real line, it has some maximum element $m$. Then no point in $X$ is close to $m+1$ (otherwise $m$ is not the maximum, contradiction). So $X$ cannot be dense.



      On the other hand, you mention that the irrational numbers are also dense, but these are already uncountable, so there’s no reason to think a dense set should be countable. (In fact, the more important thing is whether there is a countable dense set. This is called separability; see https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separable_space).






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      • $begingroup$
        Did you answer the question "Is a dense set always infinite?" It sounds like your first paragraph is saying "Certainly yes," but you restrict your explanation to the real line, with no indication of whether you think the answer applies to other situations.
        $endgroup$
        – LarsH
        Feb 4 at 12:56










      • $begingroup$
        You’re right, but there are better answers now so
        $endgroup$
        – Ryan
        Feb 4 at 15:59











      Your Answer





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      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

      votes








      5 Answers
      5






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      19












      $begingroup$

      To answer the general question of "are dense sets always infinite": no, because certainly, if $X$ is a finite topological space, then $X$ is dense in itself.



      For another example, if $X$ is any set with the indiscrete topology, then every nonempty subset of $X$ is dense.



      For yet another example, let $X = mathbb{R}$ with the topology determined by the Kuratowski closure operator
      $$operatorname{cl}(S) = begin{cases} S, & 0 notin S; \ mathbb{R}, & 0 in S.end{cases}$$
      Then ${ 0 }$ is dense in $X$, yet $X$ is $T_0$. (In fact, this example can easily be modified to give a $T_0$ topological space of any desired cardinality such that some single point is dense.)



      On the other hand, in a $T_1$ topological space, every finite subset is closed. So, if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite. Or, for the contrapositive, if $X$ is an infinite $T_1$ topological space, then every dense subset of $X$ is infinite.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 5




        $begingroup$
        Your "certainly" is dreadfully ambiguous here, and I imagine some non-native speakers will be scratching there heads over it. One meaning of "certainly" is "yes, definitely"! I suggest replacing it with "no" :-)
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 3 at 22:33












      • $begingroup$
        Re: "if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite": More specifically, $X$ itself must be that finite subset. A finite proper subset of a $T_1$ space cannot be dense.
        $endgroup$
        – ruakh
        Feb 3 at 22:58






      • 4




        $begingroup$
        I took the liberty of changing "certainly" to "no, because certainly".
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Swett
        Feb 4 at 1:00






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Ryan's answer illustrates my point beautifully!
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 4 at 10:19










      • $begingroup$
        @TonyK Good point, agreed.
        $endgroup$
        – Daniel Schepler
        Feb 4 at 18:56
















      19












      $begingroup$

      To answer the general question of "are dense sets always infinite": no, because certainly, if $X$ is a finite topological space, then $X$ is dense in itself.



      For another example, if $X$ is any set with the indiscrete topology, then every nonempty subset of $X$ is dense.



      For yet another example, let $X = mathbb{R}$ with the topology determined by the Kuratowski closure operator
      $$operatorname{cl}(S) = begin{cases} S, & 0 notin S; \ mathbb{R}, & 0 in S.end{cases}$$
      Then ${ 0 }$ is dense in $X$, yet $X$ is $T_0$. (In fact, this example can easily be modified to give a $T_0$ topological space of any desired cardinality such that some single point is dense.)



      On the other hand, in a $T_1$ topological space, every finite subset is closed. So, if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite. Or, for the contrapositive, if $X$ is an infinite $T_1$ topological space, then every dense subset of $X$ is infinite.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 5




        $begingroup$
        Your "certainly" is dreadfully ambiguous here, and I imagine some non-native speakers will be scratching there heads over it. One meaning of "certainly" is "yes, definitely"! I suggest replacing it with "no" :-)
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 3 at 22:33












      • $begingroup$
        Re: "if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite": More specifically, $X$ itself must be that finite subset. A finite proper subset of a $T_1$ space cannot be dense.
        $endgroup$
        – ruakh
        Feb 3 at 22:58






      • 4




        $begingroup$
        I took the liberty of changing "certainly" to "no, because certainly".
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Swett
        Feb 4 at 1:00






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Ryan's answer illustrates my point beautifully!
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 4 at 10:19










      • $begingroup$
        @TonyK Good point, agreed.
        $endgroup$
        – Daniel Schepler
        Feb 4 at 18:56














      19












      19








      19





      $begingroup$

      To answer the general question of "are dense sets always infinite": no, because certainly, if $X$ is a finite topological space, then $X$ is dense in itself.



      For another example, if $X$ is any set with the indiscrete topology, then every nonempty subset of $X$ is dense.



      For yet another example, let $X = mathbb{R}$ with the topology determined by the Kuratowski closure operator
      $$operatorname{cl}(S) = begin{cases} S, & 0 notin S; \ mathbb{R}, & 0 in S.end{cases}$$
      Then ${ 0 }$ is dense in $X$, yet $X$ is $T_0$. (In fact, this example can easily be modified to give a $T_0$ topological space of any desired cardinality such that some single point is dense.)



      On the other hand, in a $T_1$ topological space, every finite subset is closed. So, if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite. Or, for the contrapositive, if $X$ is an infinite $T_1$ topological space, then every dense subset of $X$ is infinite.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      To answer the general question of "are dense sets always infinite": no, because certainly, if $X$ is a finite topological space, then $X$ is dense in itself.



      For another example, if $X$ is any set with the indiscrete topology, then every nonempty subset of $X$ is dense.



      For yet another example, let $X = mathbb{R}$ with the topology determined by the Kuratowski closure operator
      $$operatorname{cl}(S) = begin{cases} S, & 0 notin S; \ mathbb{R}, & 0 in S.end{cases}$$
      Then ${ 0 }$ is dense in $X$, yet $X$ is $T_0$. (In fact, this example can easily be modified to give a $T_0$ topological space of any desired cardinality such that some single point is dense.)



      On the other hand, in a $T_1$ topological space, every finite subset is closed. So, if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite. Or, for the contrapositive, if $X$ is an infinite $T_1$ topological space, then every dense subset of $X$ is infinite.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Feb 4 at 1:00









      Tanner Swett

      4,2681639




      4,2681639










      answered Feb 3 at 16:17









      Daniel ScheplerDaniel Schepler

      9,2391821




      9,2391821








      • 5




        $begingroup$
        Your "certainly" is dreadfully ambiguous here, and I imagine some non-native speakers will be scratching there heads over it. One meaning of "certainly" is "yes, definitely"! I suggest replacing it with "no" :-)
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 3 at 22:33












      • $begingroup$
        Re: "if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite": More specifically, $X$ itself must be that finite subset. A finite proper subset of a $T_1$ space cannot be dense.
        $endgroup$
        – ruakh
        Feb 3 at 22:58






      • 4




        $begingroup$
        I took the liberty of changing "certainly" to "no, because certainly".
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Swett
        Feb 4 at 1:00






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Ryan's answer illustrates my point beautifully!
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 4 at 10:19










      • $begingroup$
        @TonyK Good point, agreed.
        $endgroup$
        – Daniel Schepler
        Feb 4 at 18:56














      • 5




        $begingroup$
        Your "certainly" is dreadfully ambiguous here, and I imagine some non-native speakers will be scratching there heads over it. One meaning of "certainly" is "yes, definitely"! I suggest replacing it with "no" :-)
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 3 at 22:33












      • $begingroup$
        Re: "if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite": More specifically, $X$ itself must be that finite subset. A finite proper subset of a $T_1$ space cannot be dense.
        $endgroup$
        – ruakh
        Feb 3 at 22:58






      • 4




        $begingroup$
        I took the liberty of changing "certainly" to "no, because certainly".
        $endgroup$
        – Tanner Swett
        Feb 4 at 1:00






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        Ryan's answer illustrates my point beautifully!
        $endgroup$
        – TonyK
        Feb 4 at 10:19










      • $begingroup$
        @TonyK Good point, agreed.
        $endgroup$
        – Daniel Schepler
        Feb 4 at 18:56








      5




      5




      $begingroup$
      Your "certainly" is dreadfully ambiguous here, and I imagine some non-native speakers will be scratching there heads over it. One meaning of "certainly" is "yes, definitely"! I suggest replacing it with "no" :-)
      $endgroup$
      – TonyK
      Feb 3 at 22:33






      $begingroup$
      Your "certainly" is dreadfully ambiguous here, and I imagine some non-native speakers will be scratching there heads over it. One meaning of "certainly" is "yes, definitely"! I suggest replacing it with "no" :-)
      $endgroup$
      – TonyK
      Feb 3 at 22:33














      $begingroup$
      Re: "if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite": More specifically, $X$ itself must be that finite subset. A finite proper subset of a $T_1$ space cannot be dense.
      $endgroup$
      – ruakh
      Feb 3 at 22:58




      $begingroup$
      Re: "if a finite subset of a $T_1$ topological space $X$ is dense, then $X$ itself must be finite": More specifically, $X$ itself must be that finite subset. A finite proper subset of a $T_1$ space cannot be dense.
      $endgroup$
      – ruakh
      Feb 3 at 22:58




      4




      4




      $begingroup$
      I took the liberty of changing "certainly" to "no, because certainly".
      $endgroup$
      – Tanner Swett
      Feb 4 at 1:00




      $begingroup$
      I took the liberty of changing "certainly" to "no, because certainly".
      $endgroup$
      – Tanner Swett
      Feb 4 at 1:00




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      Ryan's answer illustrates my point beautifully!
      $endgroup$
      – TonyK
      Feb 4 at 10:19




      $begingroup$
      Ryan's answer illustrates my point beautifully!
      $endgroup$
      – TonyK
      Feb 4 at 10:19












      $begingroup$
      @TonyK Good point, agreed.
      $endgroup$
      – Daniel Schepler
      Feb 4 at 18:56




      $begingroup$
      @TonyK Good point, agreed.
      $endgroup$
      – Daniel Schepler
      Feb 4 at 18:56











      7












      $begingroup$

      A dense set of the reals is always infinite. It need not be countable: For example, the reals are dense in themselves.



      And a dense set needs not be infinite either. For example, ${1}$ is a finite set that is dense in itself.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is true for the reals with the usual topology, but it isn't true for other topologies (like the indiscrete topology mentioned in the accepted answer).
        $endgroup$
        – probably_someone
        Feb 4 at 2:22
















      7












      $begingroup$

      A dense set of the reals is always infinite. It need not be countable: For example, the reals are dense in themselves.



      And a dense set needs not be infinite either. For example, ${1}$ is a finite set that is dense in itself.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is true for the reals with the usual topology, but it isn't true for other topologies (like the indiscrete topology mentioned in the accepted answer).
        $endgroup$
        – probably_someone
        Feb 4 at 2:22














      7












      7








      7





      $begingroup$

      A dense set of the reals is always infinite. It need not be countable: For example, the reals are dense in themselves.



      And a dense set needs not be infinite either. For example, ${1}$ is a finite set that is dense in itself.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      A dense set of the reals is always infinite. It need not be countable: For example, the reals are dense in themselves.



      And a dense set needs not be infinite either. For example, ${1}$ is a finite set that is dense in itself.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Feb 3 at 16:11

























      answered Feb 3 at 16:04









      Marius JonssonMarius Jonsson

      705414




      705414












      • $begingroup$
        This is true for the reals with the usual topology, but it isn't true for other topologies (like the indiscrete topology mentioned in the accepted answer).
        $endgroup$
        – probably_someone
        Feb 4 at 2:22


















      • $begingroup$
        This is true for the reals with the usual topology, but it isn't true for other topologies (like the indiscrete topology mentioned in the accepted answer).
        $endgroup$
        – probably_someone
        Feb 4 at 2:22
















      $begingroup$
      This is true for the reals with the usual topology, but it isn't true for other topologies (like the indiscrete topology mentioned in the accepted answer).
      $endgroup$
      – probably_someone
      Feb 4 at 2:22




      $begingroup$
      This is true for the reals with the usual topology, but it isn't true for other topologies (like the indiscrete topology mentioned in the accepted answer).
      $endgroup$
      – probably_someone
      Feb 4 at 2:22











      3












      $begingroup$

      Every dense subset of $mathbb R$ is infinite. A finite set has a maximum so it clearly cannot be dense. Dense subsets of $mathbb R$ need not be countable; for example, the irrational numbers and the entire set $mathbb R$ are both uncountable and dense.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        3












        $begingroup$

        Every dense subset of $mathbb R$ is infinite. A finite set has a maximum so it clearly cannot be dense. Dense subsets of $mathbb R$ need not be countable; for example, the irrational numbers and the entire set $mathbb R$ are both uncountable and dense.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Every dense subset of $mathbb R$ is infinite. A finite set has a maximum so it clearly cannot be dense. Dense subsets of $mathbb R$ need not be countable; for example, the irrational numbers and the entire set $mathbb R$ are both uncountable and dense.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Every dense subset of $mathbb R$ is infinite. A finite set has a maximum so it clearly cannot be dense. Dense subsets of $mathbb R$ need not be countable; for example, the irrational numbers and the entire set $mathbb R$ are both uncountable and dense.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Feb 3 at 16:12









          J. W. Tanner

          3,5851320




          3,5851320










          answered Feb 3 at 15:58









          Jagol95Jagol95

          2637




          2637























              3












              $begingroup$

              In an infinite metric space any dense set must be infinite too: all finite sets are closed and so their closure ( the same finite set) cannot equal the whole space. One dense set is the whole space, so it need not be countable, unless the whole space is.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                In an infinite metric space any dense set must be infinite too: all finite sets are closed and so their closure ( the same finite set) cannot equal the whole space. One dense set is the whole space, so it need not be countable, unless the whole space is.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  In an infinite metric space any dense set must be infinite too: all finite sets are closed and so their closure ( the same finite set) cannot equal the whole space. One dense set is the whole space, so it need not be countable, unless the whole space is.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  In an infinite metric space any dense set must be infinite too: all finite sets are closed and so their closure ( the same finite set) cannot equal the whole space. One dense set is the whole space, so it need not be countable, unless the whole space is.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Feb 3 at 16:51

























                  answered Feb 3 at 16:18









                  Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

                  113k348123




                  113k348123























                      3












                      $begingroup$

                      Certainly a set dense in the real line must be infinite: if $X$ is a finite subset of the real line, it has some maximum element $m$. Then no point in $X$ is close to $m+1$ (otherwise $m$ is not the maximum, contradiction). So $X$ cannot be dense.



                      On the other hand, you mention that the irrational numbers are also dense, but these are already uncountable, so there’s no reason to think a dense set should be countable. (In fact, the more important thing is whether there is a countable dense set. This is called separability; see https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separable_space).






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        Did you answer the question "Is a dense set always infinite?" It sounds like your first paragraph is saying "Certainly yes," but you restrict your explanation to the real line, with no indication of whether you think the answer applies to other situations.
                        $endgroup$
                        – LarsH
                        Feb 4 at 12:56










                      • $begingroup$
                        You’re right, but there are better answers now so
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ryan
                        Feb 4 at 15:59
















                      3












                      $begingroup$

                      Certainly a set dense in the real line must be infinite: if $X$ is a finite subset of the real line, it has some maximum element $m$. Then no point in $X$ is close to $m+1$ (otherwise $m$ is not the maximum, contradiction). So $X$ cannot be dense.



                      On the other hand, you mention that the irrational numbers are also dense, but these are already uncountable, so there’s no reason to think a dense set should be countable. (In fact, the more important thing is whether there is a countable dense set. This is called separability; see https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separable_space).






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        Did you answer the question "Is a dense set always infinite?" It sounds like your first paragraph is saying "Certainly yes," but you restrict your explanation to the real line, with no indication of whether you think the answer applies to other situations.
                        $endgroup$
                        – LarsH
                        Feb 4 at 12:56










                      • $begingroup$
                        You’re right, but there are better answers now so
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ryan
                        Feb 4 at 15:59














                      3












                      3








                      3





                      $begingroup$

                      Certainly a set dense in the real line must be infinite: if $X$ is a finite subset of the real line, it has some maximum element $m$. Then no point in $X$ is close to $m+1$ (otherwise $m$ is not the maximum, contradiction). So $X$ cannot be dense.



                      On the other hand, you mention that the irrational numbers are also dense, but these are already uncountable, so there’s no reason to think a dense set should be countable. (In fact, the more important thing is whether there is a countable dense set. This is called separability; see https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separable_space).






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      Certainly a set dense in the real line must be infinite: if $X$ is a finite subset of the real line, it has some maximum element $m$. Then no point in $X$ is close to $m+1$ (otherwise $m$ is not the maximum, contradiction). So $X$ cannot be dense.



                      On the other hand, you mention that the irrational numbers are also dense, but these are already uncountable, so there’s no reason to think a dense set should be countable. (In fact, the more important thing is whether there is a countable dense set. This is called separability; see https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separable_space).







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Feb 4 at 19:18









                      LarsH

                      553623




                      553623










                      answered Feb 3 at 16:01









                      RyanRyan

                      368214




                      368214












                      • $begingroup$
                        Did you answer the question "Is a dense set always infinite?" It sounds like your first paragraph is saying "Certainly yes," but you restrict your explanation to the real line, with no indication of whether you think the answer applies to other situations.
                        $endgroup$
                        – LarsH
                        Feb 4 at 12:56










                      • $begingroup$
                        You’re right, but there are better answers now so
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ryan
                        Feb 4 at 15:59


















                      • $begingroup$
                        Did you answer the question "Is a dense set always infinite?" It sounds like your first paragraph is saying "Certainly yes," but you restrict your explanation to the real line, with no indication of whether you think the answer applies to other situations.
                        $endgroup$
                        – LarsH
                        Feb 4 at 12:56










                      • $begingroup$
                        You’re right, but there are better answers now so
                        $endgroup$
                        – Ryan
                        Feb 4 at 15:59
















                      $begingroup$
                      Did you answer the question "Is a dense set always infinite?" It sounds like your first paragraph is saying "Certainly yes," but you restrict your explanation to the real line, with no indication of whether you think the answer applies to other situations.
                      $endgroup$
                      – LarsH
                      Feb 4 at 12:56




                      $begingroup$
                      Did you answer the question "Is a dense set always infinite?" It sounds like your first paragraph is saying "Certainly yes," but you restrict your explanation to the real line, with no indication of whether you think the answer applies to other situations.
                      $endgroup$
                      – LarsH
                      Feb 4 at 12:56












                      $begingroup$
                      You’re right, but there are better answers now so
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ryan
                      Feb 4 at 15:59




                      $begingroup$
                      You’re right, but there are better answers now so
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ryan
                      Feb 4 at 15:59


















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