Can anyone explain how this summation was simplified/rearranged? I can't for the life of me follow the steps












-2












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See attached image. Part of a question asking to calculate the marginal pmf when the joint pmf is known.



Marginal probability mass function










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How far can you get? Which step do you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 16:59










  • $begingroup$
    The only thing I could think to take outside the summation was the e^(-lambda). How did the first summation become rearranged the second?
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:05










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand what $sum$ means. Could you write out explicitly (as in $e^x = 1 + x + frac{x^2}{2!} + ldots $) what the first three or four terms in the expressions on the right are?
    $endgroup$
    – Dilip Sarwate
    Jan 13 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    Write out the binomial coefficient: $z!$ cancels in numerator and denominator. Also note that they have multiplied and divided by $lambda^y$ Note that $y$ is constant, so you can pull out $p^y$ for example.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    Ohh that makes a lot more sense forgot to write out the binomial coefficient now it all rearranges correctly thanks
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:15


















-2












$begingroup$


See attached image. Part of a question asking to calculate the marginal pmf when the joint pmf is known.



Marginal probability mass function










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How far can you get? Which step do you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 16:59










  • $begingroup$
    The only thing I could think to take outside the summation was the e^(-lambda). How did the first summation become rearranged the second?
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:05










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand what $sum$ means. Could you write out explicitly (as in $e^x = 1 + x + frac{x^2}{2!} + ldots $) what the first three or four terms in the expressions on the right are?
    $endgroup$
    – Dilip Sarwate
    Jan 13 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    Write out the binomial coefficient: $z!$ cancels in numerator and denominator. Also note that they have multiplied and divided by $lambda^y$ Note that $y$ is constant, so you can pull out $p^y$ for example.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    Ohh that makes a lot more sense forgot to write out the binomial coefficient now it all rearranges correctly thanks
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:15
















-2












-2








-2





$begingroup$


See attached image. Part of a question asking to calculate the marginal pmf when the joint pmf is known.



Marginal probability mass function










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




See attached image. Part of a question asking to calculate the marginal pmf when the joint pmf is known.



Marginal probability mass function







probability summation






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 13 at 16:58









Parcly Taxel

44.7k1376109




44.7k1376109










asked Jan 13 at 16:55









frenny13frenny13

12




12








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How far can you get? Which step do you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 16:59










  • $begingroup$
    The only thing I could think to take outside the summation was the e^(-lambda). How did the first summation become rearranged the second?
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:05










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand what $sum$ means. Could you write out explicitly (as in $e^x = 1 + x + frac{x^2}{2!} + ldots $) what the first three or four terms in the expressions on the right are?
    $endgroup$
    – Dilip Sarwate
    Jan 13 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    Write out the binomial coefficient: $z!$ cancels in numerator and denominator. Also note that they have multiplied and divided by $lambda^y$ Note that $y$ is constant, so you can pull out $p^y$ for example.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    Ohh that makes a lot more sense forgot to write out the binomial coefficient now it all rearranges correctly thanks
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:15
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How far can you get? Which step do you not understand?
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 16:59










  • $begingroup$
    The only thing I could think to take outside the summation was the e^(-lambda). How did the first summation become rearranged the second?
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:05










  • $begingroup$
    I don't understand what $sum$ means. Could you write out explicitly (as in $e^x = 1 + x + frac{x^2}{2!} + ldots $) what the first three or four terms in the expressions on the right are?
    $endgroup$
    – Dilip Sarwate
    Jan 13 at 17:08












  • $begingroup$
    Write out the binomial coefficient: $z!$ cancels in numerator and denominator. Also note that they have multiplied and divided by $lambda^y$ Note that $y$ is constant, so you can pull out $p^y$ for example.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 13 at 17:09












  • $begingroup$
    Ohh that makes a lot more sense forgot to write out the binomial coefficient now it all rearranges correctly thanks
    $endgroup$
    – frenny13
    Jan 13 at 17:15










1




1




$begingroup$
How far can you get? Which step do you not understand?
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 13 at 16:59




$begingroup$
How far can you get? Which step do you not understand?
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 13 at 16:59












$begingroup$
The only thing I could think to take outside the summation was the e^(-lambda). How did the first summation become rearranged the second?
$endgroup$
– frenny13
Jan 13 at 17:05




$begingroup$
The only thing I could think to take outside the summation was the e^(-lambda). How did the first summation become rearranged the second?
$endgroup$
– frenny13
Jan 13 at 17:05












$begingroup$
I don't understand what $sum$ means. Could you write out explicitly (as in $e^x = 1 + x + frac{x^2}{2!} + ldots $) what the first three or four terms in the expressions on the right are?
$endgroup$
– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 13 at 17:08






$begingroup$
I don't understand what $sum$ means. Could you write out explicitly (as in $e^x = 1 + x + frac{x^2}{2!} + ldots $) what the first three or four terms in the expressions on the right are?
$endgroup$
– Dilip Sarwate
Jan 13 at 17:08














$begingroup$
Write out the binomial coefficient: $z!$ cancels in numerator and denominator. Also note that they have multiplied and divided by $lambda^y$ Note that $y$ is constant, so you can pull out $p^y$ for example.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 13 at 17:09






$begingroup$
Write out the binomial coefficient: $z!$ cancels in numerator and denominator. Also note that they have multiplied and divided by $lambda^y$ Note that $y$ is constant, so you can pull out $p^y$ for example.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 13 at 17:09














$begingroup$
Ohh that makes a lot more sense forgot to write out the binomial coefficient now it all rearranges correctly thanks
$endgroup$
– frenny13
Jan 13 at 17:15






$begingroup$
Ohh that makes a lot more sense forgot to write out the binomial coefficient now it all rearranges correctly thanks
$endgroup$
– frenny13
Jan 13 at 17:15












2 Answers
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$begingroup$

$P(Y=y)=sum_{z=y}^inftybinom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}frac{e^{-lambda}lambda ^z}{z!}$.We have $
binom{z}{y}=frac{z!}{y!(z-y)!}$
and $lambda^z=lambda^ylambda^{z-y}$ givimg second term.

Let $k=z-y$ so the second term sum becomes $sum_{k=0}^infty frac{(lambda(1-p))^k}{k!}=e^{lambda(1-p)}$ giving the third term.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    0












    $begingroup$

    In the first one the summand goes like this$$binom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}{={z!over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}\={1over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover 1}\={e^{-lambda}(plambda)^yover y!}{(1-p)^{z-y}lambda^{z-y}over(z-y)!}}$$after all, substitute $u=z-y$ and conclude.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      active

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      active

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      0












      $begingroup$

      $P(Y=y)=sum_{z=y}^inftybinom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}frac{e^{-lambda}lambda ^z}{z!}$.We have $
      binom{z}{y}=frac{z!}{y!(z-y)!}$
      and $lambda^z=lambda^ylambda^{z-y}$ givimg second term.

      Let $k=z-y$ so the second term sum becomes $sum_{k=0}^infty frac{(lambda(1-p))^k}{k!}=e^{lambda(1-p)}$ giving the third term.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        0












        $begingroup$

        $P(Y=y)=sum_{z=y}^inftybinom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}frac{e^{-lambda}lambda ^z}{z!}$.We have $
        binom{z}{y}=frac{z!}{y!(z-y)!}$
        and $lambda^z=lambda^ylambda^{z-y}$ givimg second term.

        Let $k=z-y$ so the second term sum becomes $sum_{k=0}^infty frac{(lambda(1-p))^k}{k!}=e^{lambda(1-p)}$ giving the third term.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          $P(Y=y)=sum_{z=y}^inftybinom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}frac{e^{-lambda}lambda ^z}{z!}$.We have $
          binom{z}{y}=frac{z!}{y!(z-y)!}$
          and $lambda^z=lambda^ylambda^{z-y}$ givimg second term.

          Let $k=z-y$ so the second term sum becomes $sum_{k=0}^infty frac{(lambda(1-p))^k}{k!}=e^{lambda(1-p)}$ giving the third term.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $P(Y=y)=sum_{z=y}^inftybinom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}frac{e^{-lambda}lambda ^z}{z!}$.We have $
          binom{z}{y}=frac{z!}{y!(z-y)!}$
          and $lambda^z=lambda^ylambda^{z-y}$ givimg second term.

          Let $k=z-y$ so the second term sum becomes $sum_{k=0}^infty frac{(lambda(1-p))^k}{k!}=e^{lambda(1-p)}$ giving the third term.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 13 at 17:15









          herb steinbergherb steinberg

          3,0382310




          3,0382310























              0












              $begingroup$

              In the first one the summand goes like this$$binom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}{={z!over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}\={1over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover 1}\={e^{-lambda}(plambda)^yover y!}{(1-p)^{z-y}lambda^{z-y}over(z-y)!}}$$after all, substitute $u=z-y$ and conclude.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                In the first one the summand goes like this$$binom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}{={z!over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}\={1over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover 1}\={e^{-lambda}(plambda)^yover y!}{(1-p)^{z-y}lambda^{z-y}over(z-y)!}}$$after all, substitute $u=z-y$ and conclude.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  In the first one the summand goes like this$$binom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}{={z!over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}\={1over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover 1}\={e^{-lambda}(plambda)^yover y!}{(1-p)^{z-y}lambda^{z-y}over(z-y)!}}$$after all, substitute $u=z-y$ and conclude.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  In the first one the summand goes like this$$binom{z}{y}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}{={z!over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover z!}\={1over y!(z-y!)}p^y(1-p)^{z-y}{e^{-lambda}lambda^zover 1}\={e^{-lambda}(plambda)^yover y!}{(1-p)^{z-y}lambda^{z-y}over(z-y)!}}$$after all, substitute $u=z-y$ and conclude.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 13 at 17:17









                  Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

                  16.6k3939




                  16.6k3939






























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