Definition of Area of a Two Dimensional Line












0














I learned recently that lines such as the boundary of some Julia sets and the Hilbert curve have area. I was wondering what the strict definition of such an area would be, and I intuitively came up with the following:



Let $S$ be the set of all points on the line.



Let $R$ be the set of points in some contiguous region containing the line fully inside of it.



The area of the line is the percent of $R$ also in $S$ multiplied by the area of the region.










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  • I don't know about the boundary of a Julia set, but the Hilbert curve is space-filling, and the area is just the usual two-dimensional area.
    – saulspatz
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:30










  • The word "line" is not a good choice for the boundary you ask about. Lines are straight. While words like "curve" or "path" avoid implying straightness, your post would probably be better phrased in terms of the boundary or border of a region.
    – hardmath
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:39
















0














I learned recently that lines such as the boundary of some Julia sets and the Hilbert curve have area. I was wondering what the strict definition of such an area would be, and I intuitively came up with the following:



Let $S$ be the set of all points on the line.



Let $R$ be the set of points in some contiguous region containing the line fully inside of it.



The area of the line is the percent of $R$ also in $S$ multiplied by the area of the region.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • I don't know about the boundary of a Julia set, but the Hilbert curve is space-filling, and the area is just the usual two-dimensional area.
    – saulspatz
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:30










  • The word "line" is not a good choice for the boundary you ask about. Lines are straight. While words like "curve" or "path" avoid implying straightness, your post would probably be better phrased in terms of the boundary or border of a region.
    – hardmath
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:39














0












0








0







I learned recently that lines such as the boundary of some Julia sets and the Hilbert curve have area. I was wondering what the strict definition of such an area would be, and I intuitively came up with the following:



Let $S$ be the set of all points on the line.



Let $R$ be the set of points in some contiguous region containing the line fully inside of it.



The area of the line is the percent of $R$ also in $S$ multiplied by the area of the region.










share|cite|improve this question













I learned recently that lines such as the boundary of some Julia sets and the Hilbert curve have area. I was wondering what the strict definition of such an area would be, and I intuitively came up with the following:



Let $S$ be the set of all points on the line.



Let $R$ be the set of points in some contiguous region containing the line fully inside of it.



The area of the line is the percent of $R$ also in $S$ multiplied by the area of the region.







fractals






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 27 '18 at 17:56









William Grannis

1,015521




1,015521












  • I don't know about the boundary of a Julia set, but the Hilbert curve is space-filling, and the area is just the usual two-dimensional area.
    – saulspatz
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:30










  • The word "line" is not a good choice for the boundary you ask about. Lines are straight. While words like "curve" or "path" avoid implying straightness, your post would probably be better phrased in terms of the boundary or border of a region.
    – hardmath
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:39


















  • I don't know about the boundary of a Julia set, but the Hilbert curve is space-filling, and the area is just the usual two-dimensional area.
    – saulspatz
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:30










  • The word "line" is not a good choice for the boundary you ask about. Lines are straight. While words like "curve" or "path" avoid implying straightness, your post would probably be better phrased in terms of the boundary or border of a region.
    – hardmath
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:39
















I don't know about the boundary of a Julia set, but the Hilbert curve is space-filling, and the area is just the usual two-dimensional area.
– saulspatz
Dec 27 '18 at 18:30




I don't know about the boundary of a Julia set, but the Hilbert curve is space-filling, and the area is just the usual two-dimensional area.
– saulspatz
Dec 27 '18 at 18:30












The word "line" is not a good choice for the boundary you ask about. Lines are straight. While words like "curve" or "path" avoid implying straightness, your post would probably be better phrased in terms of the boundary or border of a region.
– hardmath
Dec 27 '18 at 18:39




The word "line" is not a good choice for the boundary you ask about. Lines are straight. While words like "curve" or "path" avoid implying straightness, your post would probably be better phrased in terms of the boundary or border of a region.
– hardmath
Dec 27 '18 at 18:39










1 Answer
1






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oldest

votes


















1














Your definition suffers from the following(fatal, I would say) flaws:




  1. You rely on the word “percent” to define your “area”. But you clearly don’t mean percent in the usual sense, because the word “percent” is (usually) defined for finite quantities and has something to do with amount out of $100$ if you like.


  2. Your choice of the enclosing region R is not unique. Thus you must give a clear indication of how R is chosen and moreover prove that different choices of R give the same value of area.



The usual definition of area of S is $mu(S) $where by $mu$ I denoted Lebesgue measure(I guess you could use other measures as well). You can read more about it on wiki of course.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you. Is my wild stab in the dark at least intuitively correct, if not concrete in details?
    – William Grannis
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:46










  • It is only very distantly correct if I may say so :) because when you define the Lebesgue measure of S you also cover S, but, here’s the difference!, you cover S not just with one region R, but with many many(as many as you can) regions R, usually of rectangular shape(so we know their area) and sum the value of these rectangular areas and tale the limit.
    – Sorin Tirc
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:52











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1














Your definition suffers from the following(fatal, I would say) flaws:




  1. You rely on the word “percent” to define your “area”. But you clearly don’t mean percent in the usual sense, because the word “percent” is (usually) defined for finite quantities and has something to do with amount out of $100$ if you like.


  2. Your choice of the enclosing region R is not unique. Thus you must give a clear indication of how R is chosen and moreover prove that different choices of R give the same value of area.



The usual definition of area of S is $mu(S) $where by $mu$ I denoted Lebesgue measure(I guess you could use other measures as well). You can read more about it on wiki of course.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you. Is my wild stab in the dark at least intuitively correct, if not concrete in details?
    – William Grannis
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:46










  • It is only very distantly correct if I may say so :) because when you define the Lebesgue measure of S you also cover S, but, here’s the difference!, you cover S not just with one region R, but with many many(as many as you can) regions R, usually of rectangular shape(so we know their area) and sum the value of these rectangular areas and tale the limit.
    – Sorin Tirc
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:52
















1














Your definition suffers from the following(fatal, I would say) flaws:




  1. You rely on the word “percent” to define your “area”. But you clearly don’t mean percent in the usual sense, because the word “percent” is (usually) defined for finite quantities and has something to do with amount out of $100$ if you like.


  2. Your choice of the enclosing region R is not unique. Thus you must give a clear indication of how R is chosen and moreover prove that different choices of R give the same value of area.



The usual definition of area of S is $mu(S) $where by $mu$ I denoted Lebesgue measure(I guess you could use other measures as well). You can read more about it on wiki of course.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you. Is my wild stab in the dark at least intuitively correct, if not concrete in details?
    – William Grannis
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:46










  • It is only very distantly correct if I may say so :) because when you define the Lebesgue measure of S you also cover S, but, here’s the difference!, you cover S not just with one region R, but with many many(as many as you can) regions R, usually of rectangular shape(so we know their area) and sum the value of these rectangular areas and tale the limit.
    – Sorin Tirc
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:52














1












1








1






Your definition suffers from the following(fatal, I would say) flaws:




  1. You rely on the word “percent” to define your “area”. But you clearly don’t mean percent in the usual sense, because the word “percent” is (usually) defined for finite quantities and has something to do with amount out of $100$ if you like.


  2. Your choice of the enclosing region R is not unique. Thus you must give a clear indication of how R is chosen and moreover prove that different choices of R give the same value of area.



The usual definition of area of S is $mu(S) $where by $mu$ I denoted Lebesgue measure(I guess you could use other measures as well). You can read more about it on wiki of course.






share|cite|improve this answer












Your definition suffers from the following(fatal, I would say) flaws:




  1. You rely on the word “percent” to define your “area”. But you clearly don’t mean percent in the usual sense, because the word “percent” is (usually) defined for finite quantities and has something to do with amount out of $100$ if you like.


  2. Your choice of the enclosing region R is not unique. Thus you must give a clear indication of how R is chosen and moreover prove that different choices of R give the same value of area.



The usual definition of area of S is $mu(S) $where by $mu$ I denoted Lebesgue measure(I guess you could use other measures as well). You can read more about it on wiki of course.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 27 '18 at 18:33









Sorin Tirc

1,520113




1,520113












  • Thank you. Is my wild stab in the dark at least intuitively correct, if not concrete in details?
    – William Grannis
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:46










  • It is only very distantly correct if I may say so :) because when you define the Lebesgue measure of S you also cover S, but, here’s the difference!, you cover S not just with one region R, but with many many(as many as you can) regions R, usually of rectangular shape(so we know their area) and sum the value of these rectangular areas and tale the limit.
    – Sorin Tirc
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:52


















  • Thank you. Is my wild stab in the dark at least intuitively correct, if not concrete in details?
    – William Grannis
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:46










  • It is only very distantly correct if I may say so :) because when you define the Lebesgue measure of S you also cover S, but, here’s the difference!, you cover S not just with one region R, but with many many(as many as you can) regions R, usually of rectangular shape(so we know their area) and sum the value of these rectangular areas and tale the limit.
    – Sorin Tirc
    Dec 27 '18 at 18:52
















Thank you. Is my wild stab in the dark at least intuitively correct, if not concrete in details?
– William Grannis
Dec 27 '18 at 18:46




Thank you. Is my wild stab in the dark at least intuitively correct, if not concrete in details?
– William Grannis
Dec 27 '18 at 18:46












It is only very distantly correct if I may say so :) because when you define the Lebesgue measure of S you also cover S, but, here’s the difference!, you cover S not just with one region R, but with many many(as many as you can) regions R, usually of rectangular shape(so we know their area) and sum the value of these rectangular areas and tale the limit.
– Sorin Tirc
Dec 27 '18 at 18:52




It is only very distantly correct if I may say so :) because when you define the Lebesgue measure of S you also cover S, but, here’s the difference!, you cover S not just with one region R, but with many many(as many as you can) regions R, usually of rectangular shape(so we know their area) and sum the value of these rectangular areas and tale the limit.
– Sorin Tirc
Dec 27 '18 at 18:52


















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