Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair...












1












$begingroup$


This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:28










  • $begingroup$
    I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:38












  • $begingroup$
    The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:39










  • $begingroup$
    oh, get it! thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:40










  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:44
















1












$begingroup$


This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:28










  • $begingroup$
    I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:38












  • $begingroup$
    The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:39










  • $begingroup$
    oh, get it! thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:40










  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:44














1












1








1





$begingroup$


This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.







probability probability-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 9 at 3:12







Mr. Zhang

















asked Jan 8 at 13:09









Mr. ZhangMr. Zhang

83




83








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:28










  • $begingroup$
    I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:38












  • $begingroup$
    The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:39










  • $begingroup$
    oh, get it! thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:40










  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:44














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:28










  • $begingroup$
    I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:38












  • $begingroup$
    The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:39










  • $begingroup$
    oh, get it! thanks
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:40










  • $begingroup$
    I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:44








1




1




$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28




$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28












$begingroup$
I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38






$begingroup$
I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38














$begingroup$
The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39




$begingroup$
The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39












$begingroup$
oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40




$begingroup$
oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40












$begingroup$
I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44




$begingroup$
I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
$$
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
$$
Note that
$$
P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
$$
for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
$$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$
Finally, we have
$$begin{eqnarray}
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
&=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
end{eqnarray}$$



Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
$$
P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:33










  • $begingroup$
    @Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:51












  • $begingroup$
    OK, forgive me for the first use.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:23



















3












$begingroup$

There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:



"Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"



Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.



As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.



Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.



I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...



If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:



enter image description here



and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:20










  • $begingroup$
    @Mr.Zhang: Mathematica: RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
    $endgroup$
    – David G. Stork
    Jan 8 at 15:26












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot! So kind of you
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:29



















0












$begingroup$

Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
$$
P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
$$

Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
$$
P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
$$

This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    3












    $begingroup$

    Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
    $$
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
    $$
    Note that
    $$
    P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
    $$
    for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
    $$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$
    Finally, we have
    $$begin{eqnarray}
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
    &=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
    $$
    P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 13:33










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
      $endgroup$
      – saulspatz
      Jan 8 at 13:51












    • $begingroup$
      OK, forgive me for the first use.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:23
















    3












    $begingroup$

    Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
    $$
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
    $$
    Note that
    $$
    P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
    $$
    for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
    $$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$
    Finally, we have
    $$begin{eqnarray}
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
    &=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
    $$
    P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 13:33










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
      $endgroup$
      – saulspatz
      Jan 8 at 13:51












    • $begingroup$
      OK, forgive me for the first use.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:23














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
    $$
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
    $$
    Note that
    $$
    P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
    $$
    for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
    $$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$
    Finally, we have
    $$begin{eqnarray}
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
    &=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
    $$
    P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
    $$
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
    $$
    Note that
    $$
    P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
    $$
    for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
    $$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$
    Finally, we have
    $$begin{eqnarray}
    P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
    &=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
    &=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
    $$
    P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
    $$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 8 at 13:36

























    answered Jan 8 at 13:29









    SongSong

    14.2k1633




    14.2k1633












    • $begingroup$
      wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 13:33










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
      $endgroup$
      – saulspatz
      Jan 8 at 13:51












    • $begingroup$
      OK, forgive me for the first use.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:23


















    • $begingroup$
      wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 13:33










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
      $endgroup$
      – saulspatz
      Jan 8 at 13:51












    • $begingroup$
      OK, forgive me for the first use.
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:23
















    $begingroup$
    wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:33




    $begingroup$
    wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 13:33












    $begingroup$
    @Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:51






    $begingroup$
    @Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    Jan 8 at 13:51














    $begingroup$
    OK, forgive me for the first use.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:23




    $begingroup$
    OK, forgive me for the first use.
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:23











    3












    $begingroup$

    There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:



    "Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"



    Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.



    As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.



    Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.



    I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...



    If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:



    enter image description here



    and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:20










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang: Mathematica: RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
      $endgroup$
      – David G. Stork
      Jan 8 at 15:26












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot! So kind of you
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:29
















    3












    $begingroup$

    There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:



    "Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"



    Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.



    As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.



    Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.



    I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...



    If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:



    enter image description here



    and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:20










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang: Mathematica: RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
      $endgroup$
      – David G. Stork
      Jan 8 at 15:26












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot! So kind of you
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:29














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:



    "Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"



    Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.



    As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.



    Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.



    I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...



    If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:



    enter image description here



    and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:



    "Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"



    Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.



    As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.



    Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.



    I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...



    If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:



    enter image description here



    and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 8 at 15:29

























    answered Jan 8 at 14:40









    David G. StorkDavid G. Stork

    11k41432




    11k41432












    • $begingroup$
      Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:20










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang: Mathematica: RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
      $endgroup$
      – David G. Stork
      Jan 8 at 15:26












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot! So kind of you
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:29


















    • $begingroup$
      Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:20










    • $begingroup$
      @Mr.Zhang: Mathematica: RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
      $endgroup$
      – David G. Stork
      Jan 8 at 15:26












    • $begingroup$
      Thanks a lot! So kind of you
      $endgroup$
      – Mr. Zhang
      Jan 8 at 15:29
















    $begingroup$
    Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:20




    $begingroup$
    Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:20












    $begingroup$
    @Mr.Zhang: Mathematica: RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
    $endgroup$
    – David G. Stork
    Jan 8 at 15:26






    $begingroup$
    @Mr.Zhang: Mathematica: RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
    $endgroup$
    – David G. Stork
    Jan 8 at 15:26














    $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot! So kind of you
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:29




    $begingroup$
    Thanks a lot! So kind of you
    $endgroup$
    – Mr. Zhang
    Jan 8 at 15:29











    0












    $begingroup$

    Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
    $$
    P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
    $$

    Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
    $$
    P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
    $$

    This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
      $$
      P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
      $$

      Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
      $$
      P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
      $$

      This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
        $$
        P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
        $$

        Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
        $$
        P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
        $$

        This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
        $$
        P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
        $$

        Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
        $$
        P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
        $$

        This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 8 at 16:29









        mjqxxxxmjqxxxx

        31.6k24086




        31.6k24086






























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