About the second fundamental form












12












$begingroup$



Let $Usubsetmathbb R^3$ be an open set, and $f:Uto mathbb R$ be a smooth function. Suppose that the level set $S=f^{-1}({0})$ is non-empty, and that at each $pin S,$ the gradient $overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ is not the zero vector. Then $S$ is a smooth two-dimensional surface in $U$, and $pmapsto overrightarrow eta(p)=frac{1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ defines a smooth unit-length normal vector field along $S$. At each $xin U,$ write $H(f)_{(x)}$ for the $3times 3$ Hessian matrix specified by $$(H(f)_{(x)})_{ij}=frac{partial^2f}{partial x_ipartial x_j}(x).$$
Show that, at each $pin S$, the second fundamental form $II_p: T_p(s)times T_p(s)to mathbb R$ is the symmetric bilinear map
$$II_p(overrightarrow v,overrightarrow w)=frac{-1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow vcdot H(f)_{(p)}overrightarrow w,$$for all $overrightarrow v ,overrightarrow w in T_p(s)$.



(Here, we view the tagent space $T_p(S)$ as the two-dimensional subspace $(span{ {overrightarrow eta(p)}})^{bot}$ of $mathbb R^3$.



Edit: Actually my question is why the second fundamental form under the usual definition can be written in this way.



Definition: The quadratic form $II_p$, defined in $T_p(S)$ by $II_p(v)=-<d N_p(v),v>$ is called the second fundamental form of $S$ at $p$, where $dN_p:T_p(S)to T_p(S)$ is the differential of the Gauss map.




Hopefully, I express this problem explicitly. I was just wondering how to prove this statement.



I took a diffrential geometry class last semester, and when I organized my notes this morning, I found this statement, but there was no proof...



Looking forward to an understandable explaination. Thanks in advance.




Edit 2:Furthermore, show that, at each point $pin S$, the expression
$$phi_p(z)=detpmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-zI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}$$
(the underlying matrix here is $4times 4$) defines a second-degree polynomial whose roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$ are $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_1$ and $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_2$, where $k_1$ and $k_2$ are the principal curvatures of $S$ at $p$.



Also, if a non-zero vector $pmatrix {overrightarrow v \c}$ lies in the kernel of the $4times 4$ matrix $$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-lambda_jI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0},$$
then $vec v$ is a non-zero element of $T_p(S)$ and lies in the "principal direction" corresponding to $K_j$.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Isn't this proved in any standard book about differential geometry? I remember that this was quite straightforward from definitions if things are done properly. But maybe I am wrong. I just don't wanna go through this again, I hate differential geometry!
    $endgroup$
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Feb 21 '12 at 6:01
















12












$begingroup$



Let $Usubsetmathbb R^3$ be an open set, and $f:Uto mathbb R$ be a smooth function. Suppose that the level set $S=f^{-1}({0})$ is non-empty, and that at each $pin S,$ the gradient $overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ is not the zero vector. Then $S$ is a smooth two-dimensional surface in $U$, and $pmapsto overrightarrow eta(p)=frac{1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ defines a smooth unit-length normal vector field along $S$. At each $xin U,$ write $H(f)_{(x)}$ for the $3times 3$ Hessian matrix specified by $$(H(f)_{(x)})_{ij}=frac{partial^2f}{partial x_ipartial x_j}(x).$$
Show that, at each $pin S$, the second fundamental form $II_p: T_p(s)times T_p(s)to mathbb R$ is the symmetric bilinear map
$$II_p(overrightarrow v,overrightarrow w)=frac{-1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow vcdot H(f)_{(p)}overrightarrow w,$$for all $overrightarrow v ,overrightarrow w in T_p(s)$.



(Here, we view the tagent space $T_p(S)$ as the two-dimensional subspace $(span{ {overrightarrow eta(p)}})^{bot}$ of $mathbb R^3$.



Edit: Actually my question is why the second fundamental form under the usual definition can be written in this way.



Definition: The quadratic form $II_p$, defined in $T_p(S)$ by $II_p(v)=-<d N_p(v),v>$ is called the second fundamental form of $S$ at $p$, where $dN_p:T_p(S)to T_p(S)$ is the differential of the Gauss map.




Hopefully, I express this problem explicitly. I was just wondering how to prove this statement.



I took a diffrential geometry class last semester, and when I organized my notes this morning, I found this statement, but there was no proof...



Looking forward to an understandable explaination. Thanks in advance.




Edit 2:Furthermore, show that, at each point $pin S$, the expression
$$phi_p(z)=detpmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-zI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}$$
(the underlying matrix here is $4times 4$) defines a second-degree polynomial whose roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$ are $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_1$ and $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_2$, where $k_1$ and $k_2$ are the principal curvatures of $S$ at $p$.



Also, if a non-zero vector $pmatrix {overrightarrow v \c}$ lies in the kernel of the $4times 4$ matrix $$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-lambda_jI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0},$$
then $vec v$ is a non-zero element of $T_p(S)$ and lies in the "principal direction" corresponding to $K_j$.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Isn't this proved in any standard book about differential geometry? I remember that this was quite straightforward from definitions if things are done properly. But maybe I am wrong. I just don't wanna go through this again, I hate differential geometry!
    $endgroup$
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Feb 21 '12 at 6:01














12












12








12


3



$begingroup$



Let $Usubsetmathbb R^3$ be an open set, and $f:Uto mathbb R$ be a smooth function. Suppose that the level set $S=f^{-1}({0})$ is non-empty, and that at each $pin S,$ the gradient $overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ is not the zero vector. Then $S$ is a smooth two-dimensional surface in $U$, and $pmapsto overrightarrow eta(p)=frac{1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ defines a smooth unit-length normal vector field along $S$. At each $xin U,$ write $H(f)_{(x)}$ for the $3times 3$ Hessian matrix specified by $$(H(f)_{(x)})_{ij}=frac{partial^2f}{partial x_ipartial x_j}(x).$$
Show that, at each $pin S$, the second fundamental form $II_p: T_p(s)times T_p(s)to mathbb R$ is the symmetric bilinear map
$$II_p(overrightarrow v,overrightarrow w)=frac{-1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow vcdot H(f)_{(p)}overrightarrow w,$$for all $overrightarrow v ,overrightarrow w in T_p(s)$.



(Here, we view the tagent space $T_p(S)$ as the two-dimensional subspace $(span{ {overrightarrow eta(p)}})^{bot}$ of $mathbb R^3$.



Edit: Actually my question is why the second fundamental form under the usual definition can be written in this way.



Definition: The quadratic form $II_p$, defined in $T_p(S)$ by $II_p(v)=-<d N_p(v),v>$ is called the second fundamental form of $S$ at $p$, where $dN_p:T_p(S)to T_p(S)$ is the differential of the Gauss map.




Hopefully, I express this problem explicitly. I was just wondering how to prove this statement.



I took a diffrential geometry class last semester, and when I organized my notes this morning, I found this statement, but there was no proof...



Looking forward to an understandable explaination. Thanks in advance.




Edit 2:Furthermore, show that, at each point $pin S$, the expression
$$phi_p(z)=detpmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-zI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}$$
(the underlying matrix here is $4times 4$) defines a second-degree polynomial whose roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$ are $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_1$ and $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_2$, where $k_1$ and $k_2$ are the principal curvatures of $S$ at $p$.



Also, if a non-zero vector $pmatrix {overrightarrow v \c}$ lies in the kernel of the $4times 4$ matrix $$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-lambda_jI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0},$$
then $vec v$ is a non-zero element of $T_p(S)$ and lies in the "principal direction" corresponding to $K_j$.











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let $Usubsetmathbb R^3$ be an open set, and $f:Uto mathbb R$ be a smooth function. Suppose that the level set $S=f^{-1}({0})$ is non-empty, and that at each $pin S,$ the gradient $overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ is not the zero vector. Then $S$ is a smooth two-dimensional surface in $U$, and $pmapsto overrightarrow eta(p)=frac{1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow nabla f(p)$ defines a smooth unit-length normal vector field along $S$. At each $xin U,$ write $H(f)_{(x)}$ for the $3times 3$ Hessian matrix specified by $$(H(f)_{(x)})_{ij}=frac{partial^2f}{partial x_ipartial x_j}(x).$$
Show that, at each $pin S$, the second fundamental form $II_p: T_p(s)times T_p(s)to mathbb R$ is the symmetric bilinear map
$$II_p(overrightarrow v,overrightarrow w)=frac{-1}{||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||}overrightarrow vcdot H(f)_{(p)}overrightarrow w,$$for all $overrightarrow v ,overrightarrow w in T_p(s)$.



(Here, we view the tagent space $T_p(S)$ as the two-dimensional subspace $(span{ {overrightarrow eta(p)}})^{bot}$ of $mathbb R^3$.



Edit: Actually my question is why the second fundamental form under the usual definition can be written in this way.



Definition: The quadratic form $II_p$, defined in $T_p(S)$ by $II_p(v)=-<d N_p(v),v>$ is called the second fundamental form of $S$ at $p$, where $dN_p:T_p(S)to T_p(S)$ is the differential of the Gauss map.




Hopefully, I express this problem explicitly. I was just wondering how to prove this statement.



I took a diffrential geometry class last semester, and when I organized my notes this morning, I found this statement, but there was no proof...



Looking forward to an understandable explaination. Thanks in advance.




Edit 2:Furthermore, show that, at each point $pin S$, the expression
$$phi_p(z)=detpmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-zI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}$$
(the underlying matrix here is $4times 4$) defines a second-degree polynomial whose roots $lambda_1$ and $lambda_2$ are $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_1$ and $||overrightarrow nabla f(p)||k_2$, where $k_1$ and $k_2$ are the principal curvatures of $S$ at $p$.



Also, if a non-zero vector $pmatrix {overrightarrow v \c}$ lies in the kernel of the $4times 4$ matrix $$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-lambda_jI_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0},$$
then $vec v$ is a non-zero element of $T_p(S)$ and lies in the "principal direction" corresponding to $K_j$.








differential-geometry






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Feb 21 '12 at 18:32









Ehsan M. Kermani

6,40412348




6,40412348










asked Feb 21 '12 at 5:10









PetersonPeterson

636




636








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Isn't this proved in any standard book about differential geometry? I remember that this was quite straightforward from definitions if things are done properly. But maybe I am wrong. I just don't wanna go through this again, I hate differential geometry!
    $endgroup$
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Feb 21 '12 at 6:01














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Isn't this proved in any standard book about differential geometry? I remember that this was quite straightforward from definitions if things are done properly. But maybe I am wrong. I just don't wanna go through this again, I hate differential geometry!
    $endgroup$
    – Patrick Da Silva
    Feb 21 '12 at 6:01








1




1




$begingroup$
Isn't this proved in any standard book about differential geometry? I remember that this was quite straightforward from definitions if things are done properly. But maybe I am wrong. I just don't wanna go through this again, I hate differential geometry!
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Feb 21 '12 at 6:01




$begingroup$
Isn't this proved in any standard book about differential geometry? I remember that this was quite straightforward from definitions if things are done properly. But maybe I am wrong. I just don't wanna go through this again, I hate differential geometry!
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Feb 21 '12 at 6:01










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















6












$begingroup$

I will use the notation $df_p$ rather than $vec{nabla}f(p)$.



First, we differentiate the function $N : p mapsto frac{df_p}{|df_p|}$ and get



$$dN_p(v) = frac{H(f)_pv}{|df_p|} - frac{df_p cdot H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} df_p .$$



Therefore



$$langle dN_p(v),w rangle = frac{left
((df_p cdot df_p) w - (df_pcdot w)df_pright)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} \ = frac{left
(df_p wedge(w wedge df_p)right)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} = frac{w H(f)_p v}{|df_p|}.$$



For your second question, first of all it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial.



Notice that by properties of second fundamental form, $|df_p|k_1$ and $|df_p|k_2$ are eigenvalues of $-H(f)_p$ with eigenvectors "principal direction" corresponding to $k_1$ and $k_2$ respectively, denoted $v_1$ and $v_2$. Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,0)$ lie in the kernel of



$$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}.$$



Hence $phi_p(|df_p|k_i) = 0$ for $i= 1,2$.





EDIT (to clarify the two points mentioned in your comments):





  1. $phi_p$ is at most a third-degree polynomial. If we develop the determinant, the summand of $z^3$ is necessary the product of diagonal coefficients, which is zero.

  2. Firstly, $v_i$ is in the kernel of $-H(f)_{p}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3}$. Since $v_i$ lies in the tangent space and $df_p$ is a normal vector, one also has $df_pcdot v_i = 0$. So the product of this $4times 4$ matrix by $(v_i,0)$ is zero.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, about the second question, I was wondering why "it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial" and "Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel".
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51












  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain more about them?
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    I've just edited of my post to make some clarifications. By the way, I don't think $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel for all $c$. Only $(v_i,0)$ does.
    $endgroup$
    – Jacob Ikabruob
    Feb 21 '12 at 20:11











Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f111577%2fabout-the-second-fundamental-form%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









6












$begingroup$

I will use the notation $df_p$ rather than $vec{nabla}f(p)$.



First, we differentiate the function $N : p mapsto frac{df_p}{|df_p|}$ and get



$$dN_p(v) = frac{H(f)_pv}{|df_p|} - frac{df_p cdot H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} df_p .$$



Therefore



$$langle dN_p(v),w rangle = frac{left
((df_p cdot df_p) w - (df_pcdot w)df_pright)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} \ = frac{left
(df_p wedge(w wedge df_p)right)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} = frac{w H(f)_p v}{|df_p|}.$$



For your second question, first of all it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial.



Notice that by properties of second fundamental form, $|df_p|k_1$ and $|df_p|k_2$ are eigenvalues of $-H(f)_p$ with eigenvectors "principal direction" corresponding to $k_1$ and $k_2$ respectively, denoted $v_1$ and $v_2$. Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,0)$ lie in the kernel of



$$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}.$$



Hence $phi_p(|df_p|k_i) = 0$ for $i= 1,2$.





EDIT (to clarify the two points mentioned in your comments):





  1. $phi_p$ is at most a third-degree polynomial. If we develop the determinant, the summand of $z^3$ is necessary the product of diagonal coefficients, which is zero.

  2. Firstly, $v_i$ is in the kernel of $-H(f)_{p}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3}$. Since $v_i$ lies in the tangent space and $df_p$ is a normal vector, one also has $df_pcdot v_i = 0$. So the product of this $4times 4$ matrix by $(v_i,0)$ is zero.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, about the second question, I was wondering why "it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial" and "Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel".
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51












  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain more about them?
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    I've just edited of my post to make some clarifications. By the way, I don't think $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel for all $c$. Only $(v_i,0)$ does.
    $endgroup$
    – Jacob Ikabruob
    Feb 21 '12 at 20:11
















6












$begingroup$

I will use the notation $df_p$ rather than $vec{nabla}f(p)$.



First, we differentiate the function $N : p mapsto frac{df_p}{|df_p|}$ and get



$$dN_p(v) = frac{H(f)_pv}{|df_p|} - frac{df_p cdot H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} df_p .$$



Therefore



$$langle dN_p(v),w rangle = frac{left
((df_p cdot df_p) w - (df_pcdot w)df_pright)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} \ = frac{left
(df_p wedge(w wedge df_p)right)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} = frac{w H(f)_p v}{|df_p|}.$$



For your second question, first of all it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial.



Notice that by properties of second fundamental form, $|df_p|k_1$ and $|df_p|k_2$ are eigenvalues of $-H(f)_p$ with eigenvectors "principal direction" corresponding to $k_1$ and $k_2$ respectively, denoted $v_1$ and $v_2$. Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,0)$ lie in the kernel of



$$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}.$$



Hence $phi_p(|df_p|k_i) = 0$ for $i= 1,2$.





EDIT (to clarify the two points mentioned in your comments):





  1. $phi_p$ is at most a third-degree polynomial. If we develop the determinant, the summand of $z^3$ is necessary the product of diagonal coefficients, which is zero.

  2. Firstly, $v_i$ is in the kernel of $-H(f)_{p}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3}$. Since $v_i$ lies in the tangent space and $df_p$ is a normal vector, one also has $df_pcdot v_i = 0$. So the product of this $4times 4$ matrix by $(v_i,0)$ is zero.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, about the second question, I was wondering why "it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial" and "Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel".
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51












  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain more about them?
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    I've just edited of my post to make some clarifications. By the way, I don't think $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel for all $c$. Only $(v_i,0)$ does.
    $endgroup$
    – Jacob Ikabruob
    Feb 21 '12 at 20:11














6












6








6





$begingroup$

I will use the notation $df_p$ rather than $vec{nabla}f(p)$.



First, we differentiate the function $N : p mapsto frac{df_p}{|df_p|}$ and get



$$dN_p(v) = frac{H(f)_pv}{|df_p|} - frac{df_p cdot H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} df_p .$$



Therefore



$$langle dN_p(v),w rangle = frac{left
((df_p cdot df_p) w - (df_pcdot w)df_pright)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} \ = frac{left
(df_p wedge(w wedge df_p)right)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} = frac{w H(f)_p v}{|df_p|}.$$



For your second question, first of all it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial.



Notice that by properties of second fundamental form, $|df_p|k_1$ and $|df_p|k_2$ are eigenvalues of $-H(f)_p$ with eigenvectors "principal direction" corresponding to $k_1$ and $k_2$ respectively, denoted $v_1$ and $v_2$. Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,0)$ lie in the kernel of



$$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}.$$



Hence $phi_p(|df_p|k_i) = 0$ for $i= 1,2$.





EDIT (to clarify the two points mentioned in your comments):





  1. $phi_p$ is at most a third-degree polynomial. If we develop the determinant, the summand of $z^3$ is necessary the product of diagonal coefficients, which is zero.

  2. Firstly, $v_i$ is in the kernel of $-H(f)_{p}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3}$. Since $v_i$ lies in the tangent space and $df_p$ is a normal vector, one also has $df_pcdot v_i = 0$. So the product of this $4times 4$ matrix by $(v_i,0)$ is zero.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



I will use the notation $df_p$ rather than $vec{nabla}f(p)$.



First, we differentiate the function $N : p mapsto frac{df_p}{|df_p|}$ and get



$$dN_p(v) = frac{H(f)_pv}{|df_p|} - frac{df_p cdot H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} df_p .$$



Therefore



$$langle dN_p(v),w rangle = frac{left
((df_p cdot df_p) w - (df_pcdot w)df_pright)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} \ = frac{left
(df_p wedge(w wedge df_p)right)H(f)_pv}{|df_p|^3} = frac{w H(f)_p v}{|df_p|}.$$



For your second question, first of all it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial.



Notice that by properties of second fundamental form, $|df_p|k_1$ and $|df_p|k_2$ are eigenvalues of $-H(f)_p$ with eigenvectors "principal direction" corresponding to $k_1$ and $k_2$ respectively, denoted $v_1$ and $v_2$. Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,0)$ lie in the kernel of



$$pmatrix{-H(f)_{(p)}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3} & overrightarrow nabla f(p)\ pm overrightarrow nabla f(p)& 0}.$$



Hence $phi_p(|df_p|k_i) = 0$ for $i= 1,2$.





EDIT (to clarify the two points mentioned in your comments):





  1. $phi_p$ is at most a third-degree polynomial. If we develop the determinant, the summand of $z^3$ is necessary the product of diagonal coefficients, which is zero.

  2. Firstly, $v_i$ is in the kernel of $-H(f)_{p}-|df_p|k_i I_{3times 3}$. Since $v_i$ lies in the tangent space and $df_p$ is a normal vector, one also has $df_pcdot v_i = 0$. So the product of this $4times 4$ matrix by $(v_i,0)$ is zero.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 7 at 19:34









Henrik Schumacher

34527




34527










answered Feb 21 '12 at 19:41









Jacob IkabruobJacob Ikabruob

492210




492210












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, about the second question, I was wondering why "it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial" and "Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel".
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51












  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain more about them?
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    I've just edited of my post to make some clarifications. By the way, I don't think $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel for all $c$. Only $(v_i,0)$ does.
    $endgroup$
    – Jacob Ikabruob
    Feb 21 '12 at 20:11


















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, about the second question, I was wondering why "it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial" and "Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel".
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51












  • $begingroup$
    Could you explain more about them?
    $endgroup$
    – Peterson
    Feb 21 '12 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    I've just edited of my post to make some clarifications. By the way, I don't think $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel for all $c$. Only $(v_i,0)$ does.
    $endgroup$
    – Jacob Ikabruob
    Feb 21 '12 at 20:11
















$begingroup$
Thanks, about the second question, I was wondering why "it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial" and "Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel".
$endgroup$
– Peterson
Feb 21 '12 at 19:51






$begingroup$
Thanks, about the second question, I was wondering why "it is not difficult to see that $phi_p$ is a second-degree polynomial" and "Thus it is clear that the vectors $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel".
$endgroup$
– Peterson
Feb 21 '12 at 19:51














$begingroup$
Could you explain more about them?
$endgroup$
– Peterson
Feb 21 '12 at 19:51




$begingroup$
Could you explain more about them?
$endgroup$
– Peterson
Feb 21 '12 at 19:51












$begingroup$
I've just edited of my post to make some clarifications. By the way, I don't think $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel for all $c$. Only $(v_i,0)$ does.
$endgroup$
– Jacob Ikabruob
Feb 21 '12 at 20:11




$begingroup$
I've just edited of my post to make some clarifications. By the way, I don't think $(v_i,c)$ lies in the kernel for all $c$. Only $(v_i,0)$ does.
$endgroup$
– Jacob Ikabruob
Feb 21 '12 at 20:11


















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f111577%2fabout-the-second-fundamental-form%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Human spaceflight

Can not write log (Is /dev/pts mounted?) - openpty in Ubuntu-on-Windows?

File:DeusFollowingSea.jpg