Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair...
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This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.
probability probability-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.
probability probability-theory
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28
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I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38
$begingroup$
The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39
$begingroup$
oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40
$begingroup$
I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.
probability probability-theory
$endgroup$
This question is normally asked with two points, which is very simple (0.75). But when it extends to 3 points, the 3-dimensional volume is really hard to work out. By simulation, I have already known that the answer is 0.5. But I would like to get a mathematical approach.
probability probability-theory
probability probability-theory
edited Jan 9 at 3:12
Mr. Zhang
asked Jan 8 at 13:09
Mr. ZhangMr. Zhang
83
83
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28
$begingroup$
I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38
$begingroup$
The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39
$begingroup$
oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40
$begingroup$
I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28
$begingroup$
I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38
$begingroup$
The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39
$begingroup$
oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40
$begingroup$
I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44
1
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28
$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28
$begingroup$
I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38
$begingroup$
I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38
$begingroup$
The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39
$begingroup$
The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39
$begingroup$
oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40
$begingroup$
oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40
$begingroup$
I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44
$begingroup$
I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
$$
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
$$ Note that
$$
P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
$$ for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
$$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$ Finally, we have
$$begin{eqnarray}
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
&=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
end{eqnarray}$$
Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
$$
P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:33
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:51
$begingroup$
OK, forgive me for the first use.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:
"Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"
Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.
As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.
Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.
I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...
If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:
and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:20
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@Mr.Zhang: Mathematica:RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Jan 8 at 15:26
$begingroup$
Thanks a lot! So kind of you
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
$$
P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
$$
Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
$$
P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
$$
This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
$$
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
$$ Note that
$$
P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
$$ for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
$$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$ Finally, we have
$$begin{eqnarray}
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
&=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
end{eqnarray}$$
Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
$$
P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:33
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:51
$begingroup$
OK, forgive me for the first use.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
$$
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
$$ Note that
$$
P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
$$ for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
$$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$ Finally, we have
$$begin{eqnarray}
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
&=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
end{eqnarray}$$
Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
$$
P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:33
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:51
$begingroup$
OK, forgive me for the first use.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
$$
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
$$ Note that
$$
P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
$$ for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
$$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$ Finally, we have
$$begin{eqnarray}
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
&=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
end{eqnarray}$$
Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
$$
P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$
$endgroup$
Let $X_1,X_2,X_3$ be identically and independently distributed random variables with the uniform distribution on $[0,1]$, and $$U_1>U_2>U_3$$ be its order statistics. Then the problem comes down to finding
$$
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2}).
$$ Note that
$$
P(u<U_3<U_1<v)=P(u<X_i<v,: i=1,2,3)=(v-u)^3
$$ for $0<u<v<1$. By differentiating with respect to $u$ and $v$, we get the joint distribution
$$P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)=6(v-u)1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$ Finally, we have
$$begin{eqnarray}
P(U_1-U_3<frac{1}{2})&=&int_{v-u<frac{1}{2}}P(U_3in du, U_1in dv)\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_u^{u+frac{1}{2}}6(v-u);dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_u^1 6(v-u);dvdu\
&=&int_0^{frac{1}{2}}int_0^{frac{1}{2}}6v;dvdu +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1int_0^{1-u} 6v;dvdu\
&=&frac{3}{8} +int_{frac{1}{2}}^1 3(1-u)^2;du =frac{1}{2}.
end{eqnarray}$$
Note: It can be generalized to the case of $n$ points with any distance by noticing that
$$
P(U_nin du, U_1in dv)=n(n-1)(v-u)^{n-2}1_{{0<u<v<1}}.
$$
edited Jan 8 at 13:36
answered Jan 8 at 13:29
SongSong
14.2k1633
14.2k1633
$begingroup$
wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:33
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:51
$begingroup$
OK, forgive me for the first use.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:33
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:51
$begingroup$
OK, forgive me for the first use.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:23
$begingroup$
wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:33
$begingroup$
wow, thanks! Hardly can I remember mutiple integral.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:33
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:51
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang If this answer solved your problem, you should accept it by clicking the check mark, so that your question no longer shows up as unsolved.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:51
$begingroup$
OK, forgive me for the first use.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:23
$begingroup$
OK, forgive me for the first use.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:
"Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"
Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.
As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.
Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.
I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...
If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:
and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:20
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang: Mathematica:RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Jan 8 at 15:26
$begingroup$
Thanks a lot! So kind of you
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:
"Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"
Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.
As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.
Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.
I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...
If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:
and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:20
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang: Mathematica:RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Jan 8 at 15:26
$begingroup$
Thanks a lot! So kind of you
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:
"Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"
Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.
As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.
Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.
I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...
If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:
and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.
$endgroup$
There must be a problem with the wording of this problem:
"Three points are randomly placed on a line of length 1. What is the probability that the distance of any pair of them is less than 1/2?"
Logically this means: "What is the probability that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_2$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$ or that the distance between $P_1$ and $P_3$ is less than $1/2$.
As written, the probability is always $1.0$. No matter where you place the three points, the probability that there exists a pair closer than $1/2$ is $1.0$.
Consider the case where $P_1$ is at $0$, $P_2$ is at $1/2$ and $P_3$ is at $1$. In this set of measure zero, no point is closer than $1/2$ to any other. In every other case, there are two points closer than $1/2$.
I think the OP really wants to ask a different question...
If it is the probability that every pair is closer than $1/2$, then the region is:
and the volume of this within the unit cube is indeed $1/2$.
edited Jan 8 at 15:29
answered Jan 8 at 14:40
David G. StorkDavid G. Stork
11k41432
11k41432
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Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
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– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:20
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@Mr.Zhang: Mathematica:RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
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– David G. Stork
Jan 8 at 15:26
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Thanks a lot! So kind of you
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– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:20
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang: Mathematica:RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Jan 8 at 15:26
$begingroup$
Thanks a lot! So kind of you
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:29
$begingroup$
Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:20
$begingroup$
Well...Can I ask what software do u use to plot this picture?
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:20
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang: Mathematica:
RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Jan 8 at 15:26
$begingroup$
@Mr.Zhang: Mathematica:
RegionPlot3D[Abs[x - y] < 1/2 && Abs[x - z] < 1/2 && Abs[y - z] < 1/2, {x, 0, 1}, {y, 0, 1}, {z, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Directive[Yellow, Opacity[0.5]], PlotPoints -> 100]
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Jan 8 at 15:26
$begingroup$
Thanks a lot! So kind of you
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:29
$begingroup$
Thanks a lot! So kind of you
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 15:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
$$
P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
$$
Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
$$
P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
$$
This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
$$
P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
$$
Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
$$
P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
$$
This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
$$
P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
$$
Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
$$
P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
$$
This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.
$endgroup$
Let's do the general case of $n$ points, since it's not much harder. Choose a point $A$ to be leftmost and a point $B$ to be rightmost. The probability that their (signed) separation is between $l$ and $l+ dl$ is $(1-l)dl$. At that separation, the remaining $n-2$ points are between the two with probability $l^{n-2}$. Integrating from $l=0$ to $l=1/2$ gives
$$
P_{n,AB}=int_{0}^{1/2}(1-l)l^{n-2}dl=frac{l^{n-1}}{n-1}-frac{l^{n}}{n}biggvert_{0}^{1/2}=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n-1}left(frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{2n}right)=left(frac{1}{2}right)^{n}frac{n+1}{n(n-1)}.
$$
Since we could have chosen $A$ and $B$ in $n(n-1)$ different ways, the total probability is just
$$
P_n=frac{n+1}{2^n}.
$$
This generalizes the known result that $P_2=frac{3}{4}$ and OP's result that $P_3=frac{4}{8}=frac{1}{2}$.
answered Jan 8 at 16:29
mjqxxxxmjqxxxx
31.6k24086
31.6k24086
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
Do you mean that the distance between every pair of points is less than $.5$ or that the difference between some pair of points is less than $.5?$ Also, what do you mean by "across from the imitation?"
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– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:28
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I mean that every pair of points is less than 0.5 . I simulate that case on R language, randomly generate 100000 points, and nearly 50000 are satisfied.
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:38
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The word you're looking for is "simulate" not "imitate."
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– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:39
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oh, get it! thanks
$endgroup$
– Mr. Zhang
Jan 8 at 13:40
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I took the liberty of cleaning up your English a bit.
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
Jan 8 at 13:44