How to show that $sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{H_n}{n}cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)=-frac{pi^2}{36}$

Multi tool use
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I learnt on www.pi314.net that $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{H_n}{n}cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)=-frac{pi^2}{36}$$
This result is hard to verify using Wolfram Alpha since the series converges very slowly.
I do not know how to prove this result.
I tried to rewrite the original series as
$$sum_{kgeq1} frac{1}{k}sum_{ngeq k}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}$$
I know that
$$sum_{ngeq 1}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}=0$$
But since $n$ starts from $k$, I cannot continue from here.
Any hint?
sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
I learnt on www.pi314.net that $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{H_n}{n}cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)=-frac{pi^2}{36}$$
This result is hard to verify using Wolfram Alpha since the series converges very slowly.
I do not know how to prove this result.
I tried to rewrite the original series as
$$sum_{kgeq1} frac{1}{k}sum_{ngeq k}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}$$
I know that
$$sum_{ngeq 1}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}=0$$
But since $n$ starts from $k$, I cannot continue from here.
Any hint?
sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
I'm wondering if a Fourier series approach (coupled with Parseval's theorem) will work.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Dua
Jan 8 at 23:37
1
$begingroup$
"I do not know how [to] prove this result." ?? The linked page contains a full proof, culminating in their paragraph 13.3.5 and equation (675). What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 9 at 0:02
$begingroup$
@Did: For now, I do not totally understand how the author uses $mgl$, $mcl$,and I cannot actually follow his proof. I see the proof, but I need some further explanation. I think I will look closer to the proof and try to figure out
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 0:22
1
$begingroup$
You have all the computations in the linked page. Just replace $cos(nx)$ by $e^{inx}$ and then take the real part.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:30
1
$begingroup$
@Larry They did define a function in parameters $k$ and $p$ by $f_p^k(x)= sum_1^{infty} {H_n^k over n^p}x^n$. So $k+p=2$ corresponds to your sum with $k=p=1$.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:54
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
I learnt on www.pi314.net that $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{H_n}{n}cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)=-frac{pi^2}{36}$$
This result is hard to verify using Wolfram Alpha since the series converges very slowly.
I do not know how to prove this result.
I tried to rewrite the original series as
$$sum_{kgeq1} frac{1}{k}sum_{ngeq k}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}$$
I know that
$$sum_{ngeq 1}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}=0$$
But since $n$ starts from $k$, I cannot continue from here.
Any hint?
sequences-and-series
$endgroup$
I learnt on www.pi314.net that $$sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{H_n}{n}cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)=-frac{pi^2}{36}$$
This result is hard to verify using Wolfram Alpha since the series converges very slowly.
I do not know how to prove this result.
I tried to rewrite the original series as
$$sum_{kgeq1} frac{1}{k}sum_{ngeq k}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}$$
I know that
$$sum_{ngeq 1}frac{cosleft(frac{npi}{3}right)}{n}=0$$
But since $n$ starts from $k$, I cannot continue from here.
Any hint?
sequences-and-series
sequences-and-series
edited Jan 9 at 0:08
Larry
asked Jan 8 at 23:34


LarryLarry
2,41331129
2,41331129
1
$begingroup$
I'm wondering if a Fourier series approach (coupled with Parseval's theorem) will work.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Dua
Jan 8 at 23:37
1
$begingroup$
"I do not know how [to] prove this result." ?? The linked page contains a full proof, culminating in their paragraph 13.3.5 and equation (675). What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 9 at 0:02
$begingroup$
@Did: For now, I do not totally understand how the author uses $mgl$, $mcl$,and I cannot actually follow his proof. I see the proof, but I need some further explanation. I think I will look closer to the proof and try to figure out
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 0:22
1
$begingroup$
You have all the computations in the linked page. Just replace $cos(nx)$ by $e^{inx}$ and then take the real part.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:30
1
$begingroup$
@Larry They did define a function in parameters $k$ and $p$ by $f_p^k(x)= sum_1^{infty} {H_n^k over n^p}x^n$. So $k+p=2$ corresponds to your sum with $k=p=1$.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:54
|
show 1 more comment
1
$begingroup$
I'm wondering if a Fourier series approach (coupled with Parseval's theorem) will work.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Dua
Jan 8 at 23:37
1
$begingroup$
"I do not know how [to] prove this result." ?? The linked page contains a full proof, culminating in their paragraph 13.3.5 and equation (675). What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 9 at 0:02
$begingroup$
@Did: For now, I do not totally understand how the author uses $mgl$, $mcl$,and I cannot actually follow his proof. I see the proof, but I need some further explanation. I think I will look closer to the proof and try to figure out
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 0:22
1
$begingroup$
You have all the computations in the linked page. Just replace $cos(nx)$ by $e^{inx}$ and then take the real part.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:30
1
$begingroup$
@Larry They did define a function in parameters $k$ and $p$ by $f_p^k(x)= sum_1^{infty} {H_n^k over n^p}x^n$. So $k+p=2$ corresponds to your sum with $k=p=1$.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:54
1
1
$begingroup$
I'm wondering if a Fourier series approach (coupled with Parseval's theorem) will work.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Dua
Jan 8 at 23:37
$begingroup$
I'm wondering if a Fourier series approach (coupled with Parseval's theorem) will work.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Dua
Jan 8 at 23:37
1
1
$begingroup$
"I do not know how [to] prove this result." ?? The linked page contains a full proof, culminating in their paragraph 13.3.5 and equation (675). What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 9 at 0:02
$begingroup$
"I do not know how [to] prove this result." ?? The linked page contains a full proof, culminating in their paragraph 13.3.5 and equation (675). What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 9 at 0:02
$begingroup$
@Did: For now, I do not totally understand how the author uses $mgl$, $mcl$,and I cannot actually follow his proof. I see the proof, but I need some further explanation. I think I will look closer to the proof and try to figure out
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 0:22
$begingroup$
@Did: For now, I do not totally understand how the author uses $mgl$, $mcl$,and I cannot actually follow his proof. I see the proof, but I need some further explanation. I think I will look closer to the proof and try to figure out
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 0:22
1
1
$begingroup$
You have all the computations in the linked page. Just replace $cos(nx)$ by $e^{inx}$ and then take the real part.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:30
$begingroup$
You have all the computations in the linked page. Just replace $cos(nx)$ by $e^{inx}$ and then take the real part.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:30
1
1
$begingroup$
@Larry They did define a function in parameters $k$ and $p$ by $f_p^k(x)= sum_1^{infty} {H_n^k over n^p}x^n$. So $k+p=2$ corresponds to your sum with $k=p=1$.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:54
$begingroup$
@Larry They did define a function in parameters $k$ and $p$ by $f_p^k(x)= sum_1^{infty} {H_n^k over n^p}x^n$. So $k+p=2$ corresponds to your sum with $k=p=1$.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:54
|
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Perhaps it is in the extraction of the values you are having trouble with. If so, here is one rather (tedious and laborious) way to do it.
From Eq. (590) in the link, one has
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n x^n}{n} = operatorname{Li}_2 (x) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 (1 - x).$$
Setting $x = e^{ipi /3}$ we see that
begin{align}
sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} e^{i pi n/3}\ &= operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 left (e^{ipi/3} right ) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 left (1 - e^{i pi/3} right ) right ].
end{align}
The log term can be disposed of immediately. Here
$$ln (1 - e^{i pi/3}) = -frac{i pi}{3}.$$
For the dilogarithm term, $operatorname{Re} operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i theta})$ is an elementary function (for a reason why, see here) and means a value for this term can be found. What I present below is one way to find it (and there are no doubt other, simpler ways).
Starting with the series representation for the dilogarithm function, we have
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{e^{in pi/3}}{n^2}\
&= sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right )}{n^2}\
&= sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 6,12,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 3,9,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 1,7,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 2,8,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 5,11,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 4,10,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}.
end{align}
Terms in the series can be rearranged as the series absolutely converges. Shifting the indices as follows: $n mapsto 6n$, $n mapsto 6n + 3$, $n mapsto 6n +1$, $n mapsto 6n + 2$, $n mapsto 6n + 5$, $n mapsto 6n + 4$ leads to
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= frac{1}{36} sum_{n =1}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{36} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/2)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/6)^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/3)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 5/6)^2} - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 2/3)^2}\
&= frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot zeta (2) - 2 psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{2} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{5}{6} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{6} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{2}{3} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{3} right ) right ],
end{align}
where $psi^{(1)} (z)$ is the polygamma function (trigamma function).
Using the known values of $zeta (2) = pi^2/6$, $psi^{(1)} (1/2) = pi^2/2$, and making use of the reflection relation for the trigamma function of
$$psi^{(1)} (1 - z) + psi^{(1)} (z) = pi^2 csc^2 (pi z),$$
we see that
$$operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] = frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot frac{pi^2}{6} - 2 cdot frac{pi^2}{2} + 4 pi^2 - frac{4 pi^2}{3} right ] = frac{pi^2}{36}.$$
Thus
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) = frac{pi^2}{36} - frac{pi^2}{18} = -frac{pi^2}{36},$$
as desired.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks a a lot. I was having trouble understanding how to plug in $e^{inpi/3}$ and take the real part. Now I understand.
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 10:56
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Perhaps it is in the extraction of the values you are having trouble with. If so, here is one rather (tedious and laborious) way to do it.
From Eq. (590) in the link, one has
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n x^n}{n} = operatorname{Li}_2 (x) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 (1 - x).$$
Setting $x = e^{ipi /3}$ we see that
begin{align}
sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} e^{i pi n/3}\ &= operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 left (e^{ipi/3} right ) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 left (1 - e^{i pi/3} right ) right ].
end{align}
The log term can be disposed of immediately. Here
$$ln (1 - e^{i pi/3}) = -frac{i pi}{3}.$$
For the dilogarithm term, $operatorname{Re} operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i theta})$ is an elementary function (for a reason why, see here) and means a value for this term can be found. What I present below is one way to find it (and there are no doubt other, simpler ways).
Starting with the series representation for the dilogarithm function, we have
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{e^{in pi/3}}{n^2}\
&= sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right )}{n^2}\
&= sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 6,12,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 3,9,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 1,7,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 2,8,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 5,11,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 4,10,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}.
end{align}
Terms in the series can be rearranged as the series absolutely converges. Shifting the indices as follows: $n mapsto 6n$, $n mapsto 6n + 3$, $n mapsto 6n +1$, $n mapsto 6n + 2$, $n mapsto 6n + 5$, $n mapsto 6n + 4$ leads to
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= frac{1}{36} sum_{n =1}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{36} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/2)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/6)^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/3)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 5/6)^2} - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 2/3)^2}\
&= frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot zeta (2) - 2 psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{2} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{5}{6} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{6} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{2}{3} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{3} right ) right ],
end{align}
where $psi^{(1)} (z)$ is the polygamma function (trigamma function).
Using the known values of $zeta (2) = pi^2/6$, $psi^{(1)} (1/2) = pi^2/2$, and making use of the reflection relation for the trigamma function of
$$psi^{(1)} (1 - z) + psi^{(1)} (z) = pi^2 csc^2 (pi z),$$
we see that
$$operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] = frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot frac{pi^2}{6} - 2 cdot frac{pi^2}{2} + 4 pi^2 - frac{4 pi^2}{3} right ] = frac{pi^2}{36}.$$
Thus
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) = frac{pi^2}{36} - frac{pi^2}{18} = -frac{pi^2}{36},$$
as desired.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks a a lot. I was having trouble understanding how to plug in $e^{inpi/3}$ and take the real part. Now I understand.
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 10:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Perhaps it is in the extraction of the values you are having trouble with. If so, here is one rather (tedious and laborious) way to do it.
From Eq. (590) in the link, one has
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n x^n}{n} = operatorname{Li}_2 (x) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 (1 - x).$$
Setting $x = e^{ipi /3}$ we see that
begin{align}
sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} e^{i pi n/3}\ &= operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 left (e^{ipi/3} right ) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 left (1 - e^{i pi/3} right ) right ].
end{align}
The log term can be disposed of immediately. Here
$$ln (1 - e^{i pi/3}) = -frac{i pi}{3}.$$
For the dilogarithm term, $operatorname{Re} operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i theta})$ is an elementary function (for a reason why, see here) and means a value for this term can be found. What I present below is one way to find it (and there are no doubt other, simpler ways).
Starting with the series representation for the dilogarithm function, we have
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{e^{in pi/3}}{n^2}\
&= sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right )}{n^2}\
&= sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 6,12,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 3,9,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 1,7,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 2,8,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 5,11,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 4,10,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}.
end{align}
Terms in the series can be rearranged as the series absolutely converges. Shifting the indices as follows: $n mapsto 6n$, $n mapsto 6n + 3$, $n mapsto 6n +1$, $n mapsto 6n + 2$, $n mapsto 6n + 5$, $n mapsto 6n + 4$ leads to
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= frac{1}{36} sum_{n =1}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{36} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/2)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/6)^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/3)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 5/6)^2} - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 2/3)^2}\
&= frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot zeta (2) - 2 psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{2} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{5}{6} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{6} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{2}{3} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{3} right ) right ],
end{align}
where $psi^{(1)} (z)$ is the polygamma function (trigamma function).
Using the known values of $zeta (2) = pi^2/6$, $psi^{(1)} (1/2) = pi^2/2$, and making use of the reflection relation for the trigamma function of
$$psi^{(1)} (1 - z) + psi^{(1)} (z) = pi^2 csc^2 (pi z),$$
we see that
$$operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] = frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot frac{pi^2}{6} - 2 cdot frac{pi^2}{2} + 4 pi^2 - frac{4 pi^2}{3} right ] = frac{pi^2}{36}.$$
Thus
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) = frac{pi^2}{36} - frac{pi^2}{18} = -frac{pi^2}{36},$$
as desired.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks a a lot. I was having trouble understanding how to plug in $e^{inpi/3}$ and take the real part. Now I understand.
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 10:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Perhaps it is in the extraction of the values you are having trouble with. If so, here is one rather (tedious and laborious) way to do it.
From Eq. (590) in the link, one has
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n x^n}{n} = operatorname{Li}_2 (x) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 (1 - x).$$
Setting $x = e^{ipi /3}$ we see that
begin{align}
sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} e^{i pi n/3}\ &= operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 left (e^{ipi/3} right ) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 left (1 - e^{i pi/3} right ) right ].
end{align}
The log term can be disposed of immediately. Here
$$ln (1 - e^{i pi/3}) = -frac{i pi}{3}.$$
For the dilogarithm term, $operatorname{Re} operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i theta})$ is an elementary function (for a reason why, see here) and means a value for this term can be found. What I present below is one way to find it (and there are no doubt other, simpler ways).
Starting with the series representation for the dilogarithm function, we have
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{e^{in pi/3}}{n^2}\
&= sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right )}{n^2}\
&= sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 6,12,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 3,9,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 1,7,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 2,8,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 5,11,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 4,10,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}.
end{align}
Terms in the series can be rearranged as the series absolutely converges. Shifting the indices as follows: $n mapsto 6n$, $n mapsto 6n + 3$, $n mapsto 6n +1$, $n mapsto 6n + 2$, $n mapsto 6n + 5$, $n mapsto 6n + 4$ leads to
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= frac{1}{36} sum_{n =1}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{36} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/2)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/6)^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/3)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 5/6)^2} - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 2/3)^2}\
&= frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot zeta (2) - 2 psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{2} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{5}{6} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{6} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{2}{3} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{3} right ) right ],
end{align}
where $psi^{(1)} (z)$ is the polygamma function (trigamma function).
Using the known values of $zeta (2) = pi^2/6$, $psi^{(1)} (1/2) = pi^2/2$, and making use of the reflection relation for the trigamma function of
$$psi^{(1)} (1 - z) + psi^{(1)} (z) = pi^2 csc^2 (pi z),$$
we see that
$$operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] = frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot frac{pi^2}{6} - 2 cdot frac{pi^2}{2} + 4 pi^2 - frac{4 pi^2}{3} right ] = frac{pi^2}{36}.$$
Thus
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) = frac{pi^2}{36} - frac{pi^2}{18} = -frac{pi^2}{36},$$
as desired.
$endgroup$
Perhaps it is in the extraction of the values you are having trouble with. If so, here is one rather (tedious and laborious) way to do it.
From Eq. (590) in the link, one has
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n x^n}{n} = operatorname{Li}_2 (x) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 (1 - x).$$
Setting $x = e^{ipi /3}$ we see that
begin{align}
sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} e^{i pi n/3}\ &= operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 left (e^{ipi/3} right ) + frac{1}{2} ln^2 left (1 - e^{i pi/3} right ) right ].
end{align}
The log term can be disposed of immediately. Here
$$ln (1 - e^{i pi/3}) = -frac{i pi}{3}.$$
For the dilogarithm term, $operatorname{Re} operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i theta})$ is an elementary function (for a reason why, see here) and means a value for this term can be found. What I present below is one way to find it (and there are no doubt other, simpler ways).
Starting with the series representation for the dilogarithm function, we have
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= operatorname{Re} sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{e^{in pi/3}}{n^2}\
&= sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right )}{n^2}\
&= sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 6,12,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 3,9,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 1,7,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 2,8,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} + frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 5,11,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{2} sum_{substack{n = 1\n in 4,10,ldots}}^infty frac{1}{n^2}.
end{align}
Terms in the series can be rearranged as the series absolutely converges. Shifting the indices as follows: $n mapsto 6n$, $n mapsto 6n + 3$, $n mapsto 6n +1$, $n mapsto 6n + 2$, $n mapsto 6n + 5$, $n mapsto 6n + 4$ leads to
begin{align}
operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] &= frac{1}{36} sum_{n =1}^infty frac{1}{n^2} - frac{1}{36} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/2)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/6)^2}\
& quad - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 1/3)^2} + frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 5/6)^2} - frac{1}{72} sum_{n = 0}^infty frac{1}{(n + 2/3)^2}\
&= frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot zeta (2) - 2 psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{2} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{5}{6} right ) + psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{6} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{2}{3} right ) - psi^{(1)} left (frac{1}{3} right ) right ],
end{align}
where $psi^{(1)} (z)$ is the polygamma function (trigamma function).
Using the known values of $zeta (2) = pi^2/6$, $psi^{(1)} (1/2) = pi^2/2$, and making use of the reflection relation for the trigamma function of
$$psi^{(1)} (1 - z) + psi^{(1)} (z) = pi^2 csc^2 (pi z),$$
we see that
$$operatorname{Re} left [operatorname{Li}_2 (e^{i pi/3}) right ] = frac{1}{72} left [2 cdot frac{pi^2}{6} - 2 cdot frac{pi^2}{2} + 4 pi^2 - frac{4 pi^2}{3} right ] = frac{pi^2}{36}.$$
Thus
$$sum_{n = 1}^infty frac{H_n}{n} cos left (frac{n pi}{3} right ) = frac{pi^2}{36} - frac{pi^2}{18} = -frac{pi^2}{36},$$
as desired.
edited Jan 9 at 8:18
answered Jan 9 at 5:06


omegadotomegadot
6,0972828
6,0972828
$begingroup$
Thanks a a lot. I was having trouble understanding how to plug in $e^{inpi/3}$ and take the real part. Now I understand.
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 10:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks a a lot. I was having trouble understanding how to plug in $e^{inpi/3}$ and take the real part. Now I understand.
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 10:56
$begingroup$
Thanks a a lot. I was having trouble understanding how to plug in $e^{inpi/3}$ and take the real part. Now I understand.
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 10:56
$begingroup$
Thanks a a lot. I was having trouble understanding how to plug in $e^{inpi/3}$ and take the real part. Now I understand.
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 10:56
add a comment |
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KcI ddXVbKCAjL uXCZTs 3BlR jxJnJ7 THgI3J8lTB138ZesC1V8K0qQya0wjNRh QlAdow,Ezv 5jMG5Gfm0235 1f
1
$begingroup$
I'm wondering if a Fourier series approach (coupled with Parseval's theorem) will work.
$endgroup$
– Aditya Dua
Jan 8 at 23:37
1
$begingroup$
"I do not know how [to] prove this result." ?? The linked page contains a full proof, culminating in their paragraph 13.3.5 and equation (675). What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Jan 9 at 0:02
$begingroup$
@Did: For now, I do not totally understand how the author uses $mgl$, $mcl$,and I cannot actually follow his proof. I see the proof, but I need some further explanation. I think I will look closer to the proof and try to figure out
$endgroup$
– Larry
Jan 9 at 0:22
1
$begingroup$
You have all the computations in the linked page. Just replace $cos(nx)$ by $e^{inx}$ and then take the real part.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:30
1
$begingroup$
@Larry They did define a function in parameters $k$ and $p$ by $f_p^k(x)= sum_1^{infty} {H_n^k over n^p}x^n$. So $k+p=2$ corresponds to your sum with $k=p=1$.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 9 at 0:54