If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of...












0












$begingroup$


While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:




If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.




[I removed some unnecessary details.]



The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.



Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
Then
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
end{split}
end{equation*}

which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
end{equation*}

but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
end{equation*}

whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.



Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:




    If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.




    [I removed some unnecessary details.]



    The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.



    Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
    Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
    Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
    Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
    Then
    begin{equation*}
    begin{split}
    lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
    lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
    c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
    end{split}
    end{equation*}

    which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
    Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
    begin{equation*}
    F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
    F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
    end{equation*}

    but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
    Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
    begin{equation*}
    F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
    logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
    end{equation*}

    whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.



    Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:




      If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.




      [I removed some unnecessary details.]



      The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.



      Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
      Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
      Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
      Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
      Then
      begin{equation*}
      begin{split}
      lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
      lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
      c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
      end{split}
      end{equation*}

      which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
      Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
      begin{equation*}
      F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
      F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
      end{equation*}

      but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
      Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
      begin{equation*}
      F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
      logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
      end{equation*}

      whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.



      Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:




      If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.




      [I removed some unnecessary details.]



      The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.



      Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
      Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
      Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
      Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
      Then
      begin{equation*}
      begin{split}
      lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
      lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
      c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
      end{split}
      end{equation*}

      which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
      Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
      begin{equation*}
      F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
      F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
      end{equation*}

      but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
      Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
      begin{equation*}
      F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
      logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
      end{equation*}

      whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.



      Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?







      limits






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      asked Jan 16 at 14:08









      yellowquarkyellowquark

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