If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of...
$begingroup$
While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:
If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.
[I removed some unnecessary details.]
The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.
Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
Then
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
end{split}
end{equation*}
which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
end{equation*}
but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
end{equation*}
whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.
Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?
limits
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:
If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.
[I removed some unnecessary details.]
The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.
Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
Then
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
end{split}
end{equation*}
which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
end{equation*}
but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
end{equation*}
whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.
Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?
limits
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:
If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.
[I removed some unnecessary details.]
The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.
Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
Then
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
end{split}
end{equation*}
which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
end{equation*}
but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
end{equation*}
whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.
Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?
limits
$endgroup$
While reading a physics paper I came across this claim:
If $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ is regular in $x$ and $mu$ for $Lambdato+infty$, then the divergent part of $F_Lambda(x)$ must be a constant, that is $x$-independent.
[I removed some unnecessary details.]
The author quickly dismisses this, saying that if it were not so, then $F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)$ would still be divergent $forall xnemu$.
Now, I don't get how this could be proved in a more precise manner: this is my attempt.
Consider a function $F$ of two variables, $(x,Lambda)inmathbf{R}^2$.
Split the function $F$ in a regular part and a singular part (with respect to $Lambda$), say $F^{(r)}$ and $F^{(s)}$ respectively, and let $c(x)$ be $lim_{Lambdato+infty}F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)$.
Fix any $muinmathbf{R}$.
Then
begin{equation*}
begin{split}
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F_Lambda(x)-F_Lambda(mu)]&=
lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(r)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(r)}_Lambda(mu)+F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]=\ &=
c(x)-c(mu)+lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]
end{split}
end{equation*}
which means that $lim_{Lambdato+infty}[F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)]$ must exist and be finite.
Now, since in this limit $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)$ and $F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)$ must coincide, I guessed that
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=
F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)+text{some other terms that are negligible in the limit},
end{equation*}
but then I tried taking $F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)=Lambda^2+log(Lambda+x)$ (restricting the domains of the variables as needed; this shouldn't cause loss of generality).
Surely it is divergent when $Lambdato+infty$, and
begin{equation*}
F^{(s)}_Lambda(x)-F^{(s)}_Lambda(mu)=
logfrac{Lambda+x}{Lambda+mu}
end{equation*}
whose limit is zero, regardless of $x$ or $mu$... this seems to contradict the claim.
Have I done something wrong? Is the claim really true?
limits
limits
asked Jan 16 at 14:08
yellowquarkyellowquark
661411
661411
add a comment |
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